Computer Science and I.T Subjects

AJAX Programming MCQs with Answers

AJAX Programming Using ASP.NET MCQs

1. When a visitor clicks the submit button on a form, the ______ of each form element is sent. A. label

B. name
C. value
D. name-value pair

ANSWER: D

2. The amount of space between letters can be specified using the __________ property in a style rule.

A. letter-kerning
B. letter-leading
C. letter-spacing

D. letter-buffer

ANSWER: C

3. Which of the following is/are the valid syntax for CSS pseudo-classes.

A. selector: pseudo-class{property: value}
B. selector.class: pseudo-class{property:value}
C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

ANSWER: C

4. The …………………. property allows to specify how much space appear between the content of an element and it’s border.

A. Spacing B. Marking

C. Padding

D. Content-border

ANSWER: C

5. The …………………. property allows you to control the shape or style of bullet point in the case of unordered lists, and the style of numbering characters in ordered list.

A. list-style-type

B. list-style-layout

C. list-type-style

D. list-type

ANSWER: A

6. Which syntax is used to describe elements in CSS?

A. Protectors
B. Selectors
C. Both a and b

D. None of the above

ANSWER: B

7. Which of the following is the ultiate element selection method?

A. querySelectorAll()
B. querySelector()
C. queryAll()

D. query()

ANSWER: A

8. The C in CSS stands for

A. Continuous
B. Cascaded
C. Conventional

D. Cascading

ANSWER: D

9. The latest version of CSS is

A. CSS1

B. CSS2

C. CSS3

D. CSS4

ANSWER: C

10. Which of the following is an example of a Shortcut Property?

A. border

B. font
C. text
D. All of the above

ANSWER: D

11. Which of the following is the default positioning element with CSS?

A. relative
B. static
C. absolute

D. None of the above

ANSWER: B

12. The ____________ selector is used to specify a style for a single, unique element

A. Id

B. class

C. text

D. Bit

ANSWER: A

13. The ____________ property specifies which sides of an element other floating elements are not allowed.

A. cleared
B. clear
C. float
D. Both A and B above

ANSWER: B

14. What is CSS Float?
A. allows other elements to wrap around an element

B. element can be pushed to the left to right
C. both a and b above
D. element can be pushed to any direction

ANSWER: C

15. To specify table border in CSS, ____________ property is used

A. tbl-border
B. table-border
C. tb-border

D. border ANSWER: D

16. _________ property can be used to Increase or decrease the space between words

A. space

B. word-spacing
C. word-space
D. Both b and c above

ANSWER: B

17. ______________ property specifies an image to use as the background of an element

A. backg-img
B. backg-image
C. background-img

D. background-image

ANSWER: D

18. Multiple external style sheets cannot be referenced inside a single HTML document

A. True

B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: B

19. Elements in CSS cannot be positioned unless the positioning property is set first

A. True

B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: A

20. The font-size value can be an absolute, or relative size

A. True

B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: A

21. Which of the following are recommended HTML approaches you use to provide spacing in a Web page?

A. using a BR tag to apply a line break
B. using a P tag to apply a paragraph break
C. using a CB tag to apply a column break
D. using a HR tag to apply a visual section break

ANSWER: C

22. Which of the following 4 technologies was not built specifically to coexist well with HTML?

A. CSS

B. DHTML

C. SGML

D. XML

ANSWER: C

23. Which of the following is true of XSLT?
A. One XSLT document is used to convert an XML document into many different types of documents.

B. XSLT processors are embedded in most of the popular Web browsers used to browse Web content.

C. XSLT generates output through the use of templates that connect to elements in an XML document.

D. XSLT includes XSL-FO (for Formatting Objects) technology that is also managed by the W3C

ANSWER: C

24. Which of the following is the best description of the relationship between HTML and XHTML

A. XHTML is a subset of HTML
B. HTML is a subset of XHTML
C. HTML is an XML encoding of XHTML

D. XHTML is an XML encoding of HTML

ANSWER: D

25. XHTML is an XML encoding of HTML

A. Extensive Hypertext Makeup Language

B. Extensible Hypertext Markup Language

C. Expansive Hyperlink Markup Language

D. None of the above

ANSWER: B

26. Which of the following is a valid XSLT iteration command

A. for

B. for-all

C. for-each

D. in-turn

ANSWER: C

27. What is an advantage of XML compared to HTML?
A. XML works on more platforms.
B. XML is suited to using Web pages as front ends to databases.

C. XML was designed for portable phones.
D. XML is simpler to learn than HTML.

ANSWER: B

28. The following best describes the development of XML.
A. XML developed from HTML because WEB browsers became more powerful.
B. XML is designed as a replacement because SGML can not be used for document development.
C. XML builds on HTMLs ability to provide content to virtually any audience by adding the power of

intelligent content.
D. XML is the modern replacement for HTML and SGML, taking the good points from each, making

both of those languages obsolete.

ANSWER: C

29. Which of the following statements is true:

A. XML is a direct subset of SGML
B. SGML is an application of HTML
C. XML is a kind of dynamic HTML

D. XHTML is XML rewritten in HTML

ANSWER: A

30. What is a qualified name?
A. Any name conforming to the XML Names specification

B. A name having prefix and local name separated by a colon

C. A name applying only to qualified elements and attributes

D. None of the above

ANSWER: C

What is a NCName
A. A Non-Common Name
B. A Non-Conforming Name
C. A Non-Colonized Name
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C

From what set of names do NCNames derive?
A. Any combination of characters allowable in XML
B. Any names conforming to XML Names, minus the colon
C. Any names for elements and attributes within the DTD to which the namespace refers
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: B

Which of the following is used to specify the attribute list of an element
A. ATTLIST
B. ?ATTLIST
C. !ATTLIST
D. #ATTLIST
ANSWER: C

Well formed XML document means(most appropriate)
A. it contains a root element
B. it contain an element
C. it contains one or more elements
D. must contain one or more elements and root element must contain all other elements
ANSWER: D

Attribute of the document interface in DOM is/are (i)doctype (ii)implementation (iii)documentElement which are read only attributes
A. (i) only
B. (ii) only
C. (ii),(iii) only
D. all
ANSWER: D

XML DSOs has the property for the number of pages of data the recordset contains
A. count
B. number
C. pageCount
D. pageNumber
ANSWER: C

What does DTD stand for?
A. Direct Type Definition
B. Document Type Definition
C. Do The Dance
D. Dynamic Type Definition
ANSWER: B

DTD includes the specifications about the markup that can be used within the document, the specifications consists of all EXCEPT
A. the browser name
B. the size of element name
C. entity declarations
D. element declarations
ANSWER: A

Parameter entities can appear in
A. xml file
B. dtd file
C. xsl file
D. Both 1 and 2
ANSWER: B

In XML
A. the internal DTD subset is read before the external DTD
B. the external DTD subset is read before the internal DTD
C. there is no external type of DTD
D. there is no internal type of DTD
ANSWER: A

What is the purpose of the method nodeMap.setNamedItem()?
A. Sets ID
B. Sets attribute node
C. Sets element name
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

How is everything treated in HTML DOM?
A. Node
B. Attributes
C. Elements
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER: A

What is the purpose of the Legacy DOM ?
A. Makes the scripting easier
B. Allows access to few keys and elements
C. Both a and b
D. None of the mentioned
ANSWER: B

What does the NamedNodeMap object represent in the HTML DOM?
A. Unordered collection of elements
B. Unordered collection of attributes
C. Unordered collection of nodes
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER: D

Which of the following is a type of HTML DOM?
A. Legacy DOM
B. W3C DOM
C. IE4 DOM
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER: D

Which object is the top of the hierarchy?
A. Window Object
B. Document Object
C. Form Object
D. Form Control Elements
ANSWER: A

What is the purpose of the Attr object in the HTML DOM?
A. Used to focus on a particular part of the HTML page
B. HTML Attribute
C. Used to arrange elements
D. None of the mentioned
ANSWER: B

The central object in a larger API is known as
A. Document Object Material
B. Document Object Model
C. Binary Object Model
D. None of the mentioned
ANSWER: B

The Text and Comment is part of
A. CharacterData
B. Document
C. Attr
D. Element
ANSWER: A

Which of the following can be used to select HTML elements based on the value of their name attributes?
A. getElementByName()
B. getElementsByName()
C. getElementsName()
D. getElementName()
ANSWER: B

AJAX Programming MCQs with Answers Read More »

MICROPROCESSORS Solved MCQs

Microprocessor MCQs

The 8088 has a_________________________.

A. 1 Mbyte address space

B. 2 Mbyte address space

C. 3 Mbyte address space

D. 4 Mbyte address space

ANSWER: A

Microprocessor is a/an _______ circuit that functions as the CPU of the compute

A. electronic

B. mechanic

C. integrating

D. processing

ANSWER: A

Microprocessor is the ______ of the computer and it perform all the computational tasks

A. main

B. heart

C. important

D. simple

ANSWER: B

The purpose of the microprocessor is to control ______

A. memory

B. switches

C. processing

D. tasks

ANSWER: A

The first digital electronic computer was built in the year________

A. 1950

B. 1960

C. 1940

D. 1930

ANSWER: C

In 1960’s texas institute invented ______

A. integrated circuits

B. microprocessor

C. vacuum tubes

D. transistors

ANSWER: A

The intel 8086 microprocessor is a _______ processor

A. 8 bit

B. 16 bit

C. 32 bit

D. 4 bit

ANSWER: B

The microprocessor can read/write 16 bit data from or to ________

A. memory

B. i/o device

C. processor

D. register

ANSWER: A

In 8086 microprocessor , the address bus is ________ bit wide

A. 12 bit

B. 10 bit

C. 16 bit

D. 26 bit

ANSWER: D

micro processors can be classified according to the ____________________. A. type of application

B. applications

C. no type

D. single application

ANSWER: A

The 16 bit flag of 8086 microprocessor is responsible to indicate ___________

A. the condition of result of ALU operation

B. the condition of memory

C. the result of addition

D. the result of subtraction

ANSWER: A

The CF is known as ________

A. carry flag

B. condition flag

C. common flag

D. single flag

ANSWER: A

The SF is called as ________

A. service flag

B. sign flag

C. single flag

D. condition flag

ANSWER: B

The OF is called as _______

A. overflow flag

B. overdue flag

C. one flag

D. over flag

ANSWER: A

The IF is called as _________

A. initial flag

B. indicate flag

C. interrupt flag

D. inter flag

ANSWER: C

The register AX is formed by grouping ________

A. AH & AL

B. BH & BL

C. CH & CL

D. DH & DL

ANSWER: A

The SP is indicated by ________

A. single pointer

B. stack pointer

C. source pointer

D. destination pointer

ANSWER: B

The BP is indicated by _______

A. base pointer

B. binary pointer

C. bit pointer

D. digital pointer

ANSWER: A

The SS is called as ________

A. single stack

B. stack segment

C. sequence stack

D. random stack

ANSWER: B

The purpose of developing a software model is_________________.

A. to aid the programmer.

B. to guide a programmer

C. to teach a programmer

D. none

ANSWER: A

The BIU contains FIFO register of size __________ bytes

A. 8

B. 6

C. 4

D. 12

ANSWER: B

The BIU prefetches the instruction from memory and store them in ________

A. queue

B. register

C. memory

D. stack

ANSWER: A

The 1 MB byte of memory can be divided into ______ segment

A. 1 Kbyte

B. 64 Kbyte

C. 33 Kbyte

D. 34 Kbyte

ANSWER: B

The DS is called as _______

A. data segment

B. digital segment

C. divide segment

D. decode segme

ANSWER: A

SS stands for____________________.

A. stack segment

B. stack segment1

C. stack segment2

D. stack segment3

ANSWER: A

The IP is ________ bits in length

A. 8 bits

B. 4 bits

C. 16 bits

D. 32 bits

ANSWER: C

The push source copies a word from source to ______

A. stack

B. memory

C. register

D. destination

ANSWER: A

LDs copies to consecutive words from memory to register and ___________

A. ES

B. DS

C. SS

D. CS

ANSWER: B

Inc destination increments the content of destination by _______

A. 1

B. 2

C. 30

D. 41

ANSWER: A

IMUL source is a signed _________ A. multiplication

B. addition

C. subtraction

D. division

ANSWER: A

_________destination inverts each bit of destination

A. NOT

B. NOR

C. AND

D. OR

ANSWER: A

The JS is called as ______

A. jump the signed bit

B. jump single bit

C. jump simple bit

D. jump signal it

ANSWER: A

Instruction providing both segment base and offset address are called _____

A. below type

B. far type

C. low type

D. high type

ANSWER: B

The conditional branch instruction specify ___________ for branching

A. conditions

B. instruction

C. address

D. memory

ANSWER: A

The microprocessor determines whether the specified condition exists or not by testing the ______

A. carry flag

B. conditional flag

C. common flag

D. sign flag

ANSWER: B

The LES copies to words from memory to register and __________

A. DS

B. CS

C. ES

D. DS

ANSWER: C

The _________ translates a byte from one code to another code

A. XLAT

B. XCHNG

C. POP

D. PUSH

ANSWER: A

The _______ contains an offset instead of actual address

A. SP

B. IP

C. ES

D. SS

ANSWER: B

The 8086 fetches instruction one after another from __________ of memory

A. code segment

B. IP

C. ES

D. SS

ANSWER: A

The BIU contains FIFO register of size 6 bytes called _____

B. far type

C. low type

D. high type

ANSWER: B

The conditional branch instruction specify ___________ for branching

A. conditions

B. instruction

C. address

D. memory

ANSWER: A

The microprocessor determines whether the specified condition exists or not by testing the ______

A. carry flag

B. conditional flag

C. common flag

D. sign flag

ANSWER: B

The LES copies to words from memory to register and __________

A. DS

B. CS

C. ES

D. DS

ANSWER: C

The _________ translates a byte from one code to another code

A. XLAT

B. XCHNG

C. POP

D. PUSH

ANSWER: A 3

The _______ contains an offset instead of actual address

A. SP

B. IP

C. ES

D. SS

ANSWER: B

The 8086 fetches instruction one after another from __________ of memory

A. code segment

B. IP

C. ES

D. SS

ANSWER: A

The BIU contains FIFO register of size 6 bytes called _____

A. queue

B. stack

C. segment

D. register

ANSWER: A

The ___________ is required to synchronize the internal operands in the processor CIK Signal

A. UR Signal

B. Vcc

C. AIE

D. Ground

ANSWER: A

The pin of minimum mode AD0-AD15 has ____________ address

A. 16 bit

B. 20 bit

C. 32 bit

D. 4 bit

ANSWER: B

The pin of minimum mode AD0- AD15 has _________ data bus

A. 4 bit

B. 20 bit

C. 16 bit

D. 32 bit

ANSWER: C

The address bits are sent out on lines through __________

A. A16-19

B. A0-17

C. D0-D17

D. C0-C17

ANSWER: A

RCR stands for____________________.

A. Rotate right through carry

B. Rotate leftt through carry

C. Rotate through carry

D. Rotate right carry

ANSWER: A

The functions of Pins from 24 to 31 depend on the mode in which _______ is operating

A. 8085

B. 8086

C. 80835

D. 80845

ANSWER: B

 

Primary function of memory interfacing is that the _________should be able to read from and write into register

A. multiprocessor

B. microprocessor

C. dual Processor

D. coprocessor

ANSWER: B

To perform any operations, the Mp should identify the __________

A. register

B. memory

C. interface

D. system

ANSWER: A

The Microprocessor places __________ address on the address bus A. 4 bit

B. 8 bit

C. 16 bit

D. 32 bit

ANSWER: C

The Microprocessor places 16 bit address on the add lines from that address by _____ register should be selected

A. address

B. one

C. two

D. three

ANSWER: B

The ________of the memory chip will identify and select the register for the EPROM

A. internal decoder

B. external decoder

C. address decoder

D. data decoder

ANSWER: A

 Microprocessor provides signal like ____ to indicate the read operatio

A. LOW

B. MCMW

C. MCMR

D. MCMWR

ANSWER: C

 To interface memory with the microprocessor, connect register the lines of the address bus must be added to address lines of the _______ chip 

A. single

B. memory

C. multiple

D. triple

ANSWER: B

The remaining address line of ______ bus is decoded to generate chip select signal

A. data

B. address

C. control bus

D. both (a) and (b)

ANSWER: B

_______ signal is generated by combining RD and WR signals with IO/M

A. control

B. memory

C. register

D. system

ANSWER: A

Memory is an integral part of a _______ system

A. supercomputer

B. microcomputer

C. mini computer

D. mainframe computer

ANSWER: B

_____ has certain signal requirements write into and read from its registers

A. memory

B. register

C. both (a) and (b)

D. control

ANSWER: A

The memory chips such as 2732 EPROM and _________static R/W memory plays a major role in memory interfacing

A. 2732 EPROM

B. 6116

C. 8085

D. 8086

ANSWER: B

AAD stands for _____________________.

A. ASCII adjust for division

B. ASCII for division

C. adjust for division

D. adjust division

ANSWER: A

The primary function of the _____________ is to accept data from I/P devices

A. multiprocessor

B. microprocessor

C. peripherals

D. interfaces

ANSWER: B

Designing logic circuits and writing instructions to enable the microprocessor to communicate with peripheral is called _________

A. interfacing

B. monitoring

C. polling

D. pulling

ANSWER: A

_______ means at the same time, the transmitter and receiver are synchronized with the same clock.

A. asynchronous

B. serial data

C. synchronous

D. parallel data

ANSWER: C

________ means at irregular internals

A. asynchronous

B. synchronous

C. data transform

D. bus transform

ANSWER: A

___________ signal prevent the microprocessor from reading the same data more than one

A. pipelining

B. handshaking

C. controlling

D. signaling

ANSWER: B

Bits in IRR interrupt are ______

A. reset

B. set C. stop

D. start

ANSWER: B

_________ decides the request of interrupt to be serviced

A. priority resolver

B. interrupt request register

C. interrupt mask register

D. control logic

ANSWER: A

__________ generate interrupt signal to microprocessor and receive acknowledge

A. priority resolver

B. control logic

C. interrupt request register

D. interrupt register

ANSWER: B

LSB stands for____________________.

A. Least significant bit

B. significant bit

C. Least bit

D. Least significant bit1

ANSWER: A

The _______ is used to connect more microproces

A. peripheral device

B. cascade

C. i/o deviced

D. control unit

ANSWER: B

The important type of data transfer operation is ________________________.

A. loading a segment

B. unloading a segment

C. segment registers

D. memory segment

ANSWER: A

CS connect the output of ______

A. encoder

B. decoder

C. slave program

D. buffer

ANSWER: B

The preceeding section identified the fundamental data formats of the 8088 ______________.

A. as the byte,word and double word B. as the byte, and double worg

C. as the byte,word and double

D. as the byte

ANSWER: A

The 82C55A is an___________.

A. SI Peripheral

B. Peripheral

C. LSPeripheral

D. LSI Peripheral

ANSWER: D

______ is used to transfer data between microprocessor and I/o process

A. 8255A

B. 8279

C. 8254A

D. 8237A

ANSWER: A

The left side of the 82C55A contains_________

A. The miocroprocessor interface

B. The miocro interface

C. The interface

D. interface controller

ANSWER: A

In 82C55A the ____ is controlled by control registers

A. port A

B. port B

C. port C

D. port D

ANSWER: C

The read and write operation is done using ______

A. Iow/Ior

B. Iw/Ir

C. Iow

D. Ior

ANSWER: A

_______ is used to transfer address connect to address block

A. data bus

B. address bus

C. bus

D. flag

ANSWER: B

_________ performs the address decode operation

A. chip select

B. address bus

C. data bus

D. flag

ANSWER: A

The 82C37A is the _______________.

A. LSI controller IC

B. SI controller IC

C. controller IC

D. LSI

ANSWER: A

In 82C55A _________ is used for handshaking operation

A. mode 0

B. mode1

C. mode 2

D. mode3

ANSWER: B

In 82C55 A ___________ is used to perform bidirectional operation

A. mode 0

B. mode1

C. mode 2

D. mode3

ANSWER: C

Data transfer between the microprocessor for peripheral takes place through __________

A. i/o port

B. input port

C. output port

D. multi port

ANSWER: A

The device such as buffer and batches are used as ____________.

A. input port

B. output port

C. i/o port

D. multi port

ANSWER: C

The lastmode of 82C54 Counter operation is____________.

A. mode 1

B. mode 2

C. mode 3

D. mode 5

ANSWER: D

Port A and Port B are used individually as _______ I/o ports

 

A. 8

B. 16

C. 32

D. 4

ANSWER: A

The 82C55A is available with ________

A. 20

B. 40

C. 30

D. 10

ANSWER: B

82C55A operates with ________ power supply

A. +5V

B. -5V

C. -10V

D. +10v

ANSWER: A

The pins are _______ data lines and are connected to data bus in system

A. unidirectional

B. bidirectional

C. directional

D. multidirectional

ANSWER: B

________ are transferred on the data lines between microprocessor and internal port or control register

A. data, control and status bites

B. data and status bits

C. control and status bites

D. status bits

ANSWER: A

There are ________ address bus in 82C55A

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

ANSWER: A

The address bus enables the ________ for data transfer.

A. control register

B. data bus

C. address bus

D. both (b) and (c)

ANSWER: A

HLDA stands for___________________.

A. Hold acknowledge

B. Hold acknowledge1

C. Hold acknowledge2

D. Hold acknowledge3

ANSWER: A

The port lines are connected to data lines of the _____

A. peripheral

B. microprocessor

C. address decoder

D. data decoder

ANSWER: A

The _________ input to 82C55A is usually activated by Microprocessor in system

A. clear

B. reset

C. ports

D. address bus

ANSWER: B

__________ is useful for the generation of accurate time delay

A. 8254

B. 8255A

C. 8237A

D. 8279

ANSWER: A

_________ is used to refresh D-Ram and regular intervals and provide timing signals

A. 8255A

B. 8237A

C. 8254

D. 8279

ANSWER: C

The 82C54 contains __________ counters

A. 2-16 bit

B. 3-16 bit

C. 2-8 bit.

D. 3-8 bit

ANSWER: B

The data bus buffer is _________data line

A. unidirectional

B. bidirectional

C. no direction

D. multi direction

ANSWER: B

In 82C54 there are ________ pins

A. 20

B. 24

C. 30

D. 40

ANSWER: B

 

The data lines is used to transfer _______

A. count, control and status word

B. data, control and status word

C. data, count

D. count status word

ANSWER: A

The ________ input is connected to an output of the address decoder

A. address bus

B. data bus

C. chip select

D. reset

ANSWER: C

The clock signal of frequency upto _____ is supplied to clock input

A. 16 MHz

B. 8 MHz

C. 32 MHz

D. 4 MHz

ANSWER: B

The ________ input is used to enable or disable

A. Clk

B. out

C. Reset

D. gate

ANSWER: D

The _______ generates output way forms on the out and output line

A. Counter

B. clock

C. Gate

D. out

ANSWER: A

The ____ is constructed for the desired mode and return into control register

A. control word

B. clk signal

C. Gate

D. reset

ANSWER: A

MIPS Stands for_____________.

A. millions instructions per second

B. instructions per second

C. millions per second

D. millions instructions

ANSWER: A

 The _______ allow data transfer between memory and peripherals

A. DMA technique

B. Microprocessor

C. Register

D. Decoder

ANSWER: A

The spectrum of embedded control application requires______________.

A. a variety of system features

B. a variety of features

C. variety of system features

D. system features

ANSWER: A

There are _____different types of interface in micro computer system

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 2

ANSWER: D

 _________ is used in high speed transfer is required

A. dma technique

B. serial communication interface

C. microprocessor

D. register

ANSWER: A

 ________ is used to eliminate clock signal

A. synchronous

B. asynchronous

C. serial

D. dmaA

NSWER: B

 Synchronization bit at the beginning of character is called ________

A. stop bit

B. simplex

C. half duplex

D. start bit

ANSWER: D

Who introduced Pentium family? A. intel

B. wipro

C. cts 

D. samsung

ANSWER: A

Pentium pro processor is a ______ generation of device

A. first

B. second

C. third

D. fourth

ANSWER: B

In which year, Pentium pro processor introduced?

A. 1996

B. 1998

C. 1995

D. 1999

ANSWER: C

_______ has been enhanced to provide higher performance for multimedia & communication applications. A. Pentium I B. Pentium II C. Pentium processor with MMX technology D. Pentium processor with Celeron technology ANSWER: C 125. RISC stands for._____________________________.

A. Reduced instruction set computer

B. Reduced set computer

C. Reduced instruction computer

D. Reduced instruction set computer1 ANSWER: A

Expansion of SPGA is _________

A. Staggered Pin Grid-Array package

B. Staggered Point Grid-Array package

C. Staggered Plus Grid-Array package

D. Staggered per grid-Array package ANSWER: A

Pentium pro processor has _______ die

A. one

B. three

C. two

D. four

ANSWER: C

In Pentium-pro processor, dies are manufactured using intel ___ mm BICMOS process

A. 0.25

B. 0.35

C. 0.45

D. 0.50

ANSWER: B

The circuitry of the Pentium pro processor is equivalent to _______ million transistors

A. 1.5

B. 2.5

C. 3.5

D. 5.5

ANSWER: D

Pentium-pro processor design implements________ micro architecture

A. P2

B. P4

C. P6

D. P8

ANSWER: C

Micro architecture employs _________ execution

A. static

B. dynamic

C. static and dynamic

D. none

ANSWER: B

________ is performed to determine the best order of for execution of instructions

A. system flow analysis

B. process flow analysis

C. data flow analysis.

D. control flow analysis

ANSWER: C

Pentium processor with MMX technology includes _____ new instructions and 4 new _______ data types

A. 50 & 64 bit

B. 55 & 63 bit

C. 57 & 64 bit

D. 51 & 61 bit

ANSWER: A

Pentium II processor is a ____generation

A. first

B. second

C. third

D. fourth

ANSWER: C

 introduced in the year _______.

A. 1990

B. 1995

C. 1998

D. 1992

ANSWER: C

________followed Celeron processor and Pentium II Xeon processor

A. pentium pro processor

B. pentium ii processor

C. pentium iii processor

D. pentium iv processor

ANSWER: B 

 Pentium II xeon processor offers _______ performance than the std Pentium II processor

A. lower

B. higher

C. medium

D. none

ANSWER: B

 Dual independent bus architecture was first introduced in the ________________

A. pentium pro processor

B. pentium II processor

C. pentium III processor

D. pentium IV processor

ANSWER: A

How many buses provided in Pentium II processor?

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

ANSWER: B

The system bus of both Pentium pro and Pentium II processors carry ______ bytes per clock

A. 4

B. 8

C. 7

D. 5

ANSWER: B

 The maximum speed of Pentium II processor is increased to _______ MHz

A. 200

B. 300

C. 100

D. 500

ANSWER: C

Backside bus between L2 cache and MPU is _____ speed

A. higher

B. lower

C. medium

D. Infinite

ANSWER: A

The peak bus bandwidth of backside bus (cache bus) is ______ Mbytes/second

A. 1000

B. 1600

C. 2600

D. 3400

ANSWER: B

ECC & FRC were first introduced in _________

A. pentium pro processor

B. pentium II processor

C. pentium II xeon processor

D. pentium III xeon processor ANSWER: A

Pentium III processor was introduced in _______

A. 1999

B. 2000

C. 2010

D. 2009A

NSWER: A

 Pentium III processor is manufactured using ____ process technology

A. 0.17

B. 0.16

C. 0.18

D. 0.15

ANSWER: C

In Pentium III processor, the P6 micro architecture is enriched with an additional ______ instructions

A. 20

B. 30

C. 40

D. 70

ANSWER: D

The 80386 Microprocessor family is a _____ bit microprocessor

A. 8

B. 16

C. 32

D. 64 

ANSWER: C

In which year, 80386 microprocessor was introduced?

A. 1999

B. 1995

C. 1985

D. 1990

ANSWER: C

An interrupt enable flag bit is provided within the _____________________.

A. 8088 and 8086 MPU

B. 8088 MPU

C. 8086 MPU

D. 8088 and 8085 MPU

ANSWER: A

The 80386DX MPU is the ______ entry in the 80386 family

A. first

B. second

C. third

D. fourth

ANSWER: A

Which device is high-performance member of the 80386 family of MPUs?

A. 80386SX

B. 80386DX

C. 80486SX

D. 80486DX

ANSWER: B

The 80386DX is a full _____ processor

A. 16 bit

B. 8 bit

C. 32 bit

D. 64 bit

ANSWER: C

The 80386DX has both 32 bit internal registers ______ external data bus

A. 16 bit

B. 8 bit

C. 32 bit

D. 36 bit

ANSWER: C

The 80486 family was introduced in the year ______

A. 1987

B. 1988

C. 1989

D. 1990

ANSWER: B

________ maintains real modes protected-mode software compatibility with 80386 architecture A. 80486

B. 8085

C. 8086

D. 80486 DX

ANSWER: A

80486DX was followed by ________

A. 80486SX

B. 80386SX

C. 80386DX

D. 80486DX

ANSWER: A

_______ version did not have a 16-bit external architecture

A. DX

B. SX

C. TX

D. PX

ANSWER: B

_______family supports both a math co processor and cache memory A. 8086

B. 8087

C. 80386

D. 80486

ANSWER: C

_______is a co-processor

A. 8086

B. 8087

C. 80386

D. 80486

ANSWER: B

The number of hardware chips needed for multiple digit display can be minimized by using the technique called ______

A. interfacing

B. multiplexing

C. demultiplexing

D. multiprocessing

ANSWER: B

 

I/o ports of programmable devices are limited in current capacity, therefore, additional transistors or ICs called ________

A. LEDs and LCSs

B. interface and multiplexer

C. segment and digit drivers

D. segment drives

ANSWER: C

The SN75491 and SN75492 has ________ and _________ Darlington pair transistors in a package respectively

A. 3,8

B. 4,6

C. 2,4

D. 5,10

ANSWER: B

____________ is a commonly used input device when more than 8 key are necessary

A. Mouse

B. Joystick

C. Matrix Keyboard

D. Both (a) and (b)

ANSWER: C

 The _________ reduces the number of connections, thus the number of interfacing device required

A. Mouse

B. Joystick

C. Monitor

D. matrix keyboard

ANSWER: D

In scanned multiplexed displays _______ should sink seven or eight times that current

A. Multiplex

B. Demultiplexer

C. Segment

D. Cathode

ANSWER: D

 The ______ is called segment or digit dri

A. Transistors

B. Cathode

C. Circuit

D. Displays

ANSWER: A

 

The ______ provide the capability of eight I/o ports in interfacing circuit

A. Encoder

B. Decoder

C. Multiplexer

D. Demultiplexe

ANSWER: B

The output line of interfacing circuit is used in _____

A. LED scanned display

B. LCD Scanned display

C. Keyboard matrix

D. Display

ANSWER: A

These are _______ common cathode in scanned multiplexed displays

A. 7

B. 6

C. 5

D. 4

ANSWER: B

There are ______ segment LEDs in scanned multiplexed displays

A. 5

B. 4 C.

6 D. 7

ANSWER: D

An RS-232 interface is ____________

A. a parallel interface

B. a serial interface

C. printer interface

D. a modem interface

ANSWER: B

Expansion for DTE is ______

A. data terminal equipment

B. data trap equipment

C. data text equipment

D. data terminal extension

ANSWER: A

CLI stands for_________________________.

A. clear interrupt flag

B. clear flag

C. c1 interrupt flag

D. flag 

ANSWER: A

RS-232 is used in _________

A. common serial port

B. common signal port

C. computer serial ports

D. computer signal port

ANSWER: C

Rs-232 was introduced in __________

A. 1942

B. . 1932

C. 1952

D. 1962

ANSWER: D

Compared with RS-232, USB is faster and uses___________

A. medium voltage

B. higher voltage

C. lower voltage

D. None

ANSWER: C

In which year, 8086 was introduced?

A. 1978

B. 1979

C. 1977

D. 1981

ANSWER: A

In which year, 8088 was announced

A. 1979

B. 1988

C. 1999

D. 2000

ANSWER: A

What does the acronym RFID stand for

A. remote field identification

B. radio frequency identification

C. radio field identification

D. radio frequency imaging & detection

ANSWER: B

What is a smart card ?

A. form of ATM card

B. has more storage capacity than an ATM card

C. an access card for a security system

D. contains a microprocessor ANSWER: C

Smart Card on a microprocessor is for _______

A. safety

B. security

C. protection

D. authority

ANSWER: B

Smart card is used to provide ___________

A. access

B. authority

C. automation

D. access control

ANSWER: A

Another name for smart card ________

A. ICC

B. IFC

C. IRC

D. IC

ANSWER: A

Smart card is made up of ________

A. silicon

B. iron

C. plastic

D. rubber

ANSWER: C

Smart card size is _________

A. 85.60 x 53.98 mm

B. 85.70 x53.68 mm

C. 86.50 x 52.67 mm

D. 86.40 x51.77 mm

ANSWER: A

The instruction that is used to save parameters on the stack is the ____________.

A. push

B. pop

C. push1

D. push2

ANSWER: A

The smart card uses a __________ interface

A. serial

B. parallel

C. multple

D. single

ANSWER: A

The most common smart card application is ________.

A. credit card

B. atm card

C. business card

D. system card

ANSWER: A

Expansion for HMOS technology_______

A. high level mode oxygen semiconductor

B. high level metal oxygen semiconductor

C. high performance medium oxide semiconductor

D. high performance metal oxide semiconductor

ANSWER: D

8086 and 8088 contains _______ transistors

A. 29000

B. 24000

C. 34000

D. 54000

ANSWER: A

ALE stands for ___________

A. address latch enable

B. address level enable

C. address leak enable

D. address leak extension

ANSWER: A

What is DEN

A. direct enable

B. data entered

C. data enable

D. data encoding

ANSWER: B

Which pin is a programmable peripheral interface

A. 8255

B. 8258

C. 8254

D. 8259

ANSWER: A

The inside of smart card contains an ___________

A. 8085 microprocessor

B. 8086 microprocessor

C. 8088 microprocessor

D. embedded microprocessor ANSWER: D

RFID technology is a __________

A. automatic identification technology B. computer tech

C. information tech

D. system tech

ANSWER: A

The information stored in RFID is ________

A. character

B. number

C. ascii

D. pneumonic

ANSWER: C

In RFID, the productivity enhancement is _______ time

A. five

B. ten

C. four

D. nine

ANSWER: B

A double word corresponds to __________________________.

A. four consecutive bytes

B. three consecutive bytes

C. two consecutive bytes

D. one consecutive bytes

ANSWER: A

Which interrupt has the highest priority

A. INTR

B. TRAP

C. RST6.5

D. RST6.6

ANSWER: C

 In 8088 name the 16 bit registers

A. stack pointer

B. program counter

C. a & b

D. stack register

ANSWER: C

 A subroutine is _______________________. 

A. special segment of program

B. special program

C. program

D. subprogram

ANSWER: A

What is the RST for the TRAP?

A. RST5.5

B. RST4.5

C. RST4

D. RST3

ANSWER: B

What are level Triggering interrupts

A. INTR&TRAP.

B. RST6.5&RST5.5.

C. RST7.5&RST6.5.

D. RST2.5 & RST6.2.

ANSWER: B

The Purpose of developing a software model is to ________________.

A. microprocessor operation

B. the microprocessor operation

C. understand the microprocessor

D. understand the microprocessor operation

ANSWER: D

What are software interrupts

A. RST 0-7

B. RST 5.5 – 7.5

C. INTR, TRAP

D. RST 4.4 – 6.4

ANSWER: A

Which stack is used in 8085

A. FIFO.

B. LIFO.

C. FILO

D. LILO.

ANSWER: B

Why 8085 processor is called an 8 bit processor

A. because 8085 processor has 8 bit alu.

B. because 8085 processor has 8 bit data bus.

C. because 8085 processor has 16 bit data bus.

D. because 8085 processor has 16 bit address bus.

ANSWER: A

 

There are two basic instructions in the instruction set of 8088for____________.

A. subroutine handling

B. routine handling

C. program handling

D. call program

ANSWER: A

RIM is used to check whether, the ___________.

A. write operation is done or not .

B. interrupt is Masked or not .

C. interrupt is Masked.

D. interrupt is not Masked.

ANSWER: B

What is meant by maskable interrupts?

A. an interrupt which can never be turned off.

B. an interrupt that can be turned off by the programmer.

C. an interrupt which can never be turned on.

D. an interrupt which can never be turned on or off.

ANSWER: B

In 8086, Example for Non maskable interrupts are ________.

A. trap.

B. rst6.5

C. intr.

D. rst6.6.

ANSWER: A

What does microprocessor speed depends on

A. clock.

B. data bus width.

C. address bus width.

D. signal bus.

ANSWER: C

______ can be used as stack .

A. ROM.

B. RAM.

C. EPROM

D. PROM

ANSWER: B

Which processor structure is pipelined

A. all x80 processors.

B. all x85 processors.

C. all x86 processors.

D. all x87 processors.

ANSWER: C

Address line for RST3 is

A. 0020H.

B. 0028H.

C. 0018H.

D. 0019H

ANSWER: C

In 8086 the overflow flag is set when _____________.

A. the sum is more than 16 bits.

B. signed numbers go out of their range after an arithmetic operation.

C. carry and sign flags are set.

D. subtraction

ANSWER: B

The advantage of memory mapped I/O over I/O mapped I/O is _________

A. faster.

B. many instructions supporting memory mapped I/O.

C. require a bigger address decoder.

D. all the above

ANSWER: D

 BHE of 8086 microprocessor signal is used to interface the _______.

A. even bank memory.

B. odd bank memory.

C. i/o.

D. direct memory access

ANSWER: B

 In 8086 microprocessor the following has the highest priority among all type interrupts

A. NMI.

B. DIV 0.

C. TYPE 255.

D. OVER FLOW

ANSWER: A

 In 8086 microprocessor one of the following statements is not true

A. coprocessor is interfaced in max mode.

B. coprocessor is interfaced in min mode.

C. i/o can be interfaced in max / min mode.

D. supports pipelining

ANSWER: B

8088 microprocessor differs with 8086 microprocessor in _______.

A. data width on the output.

B. address capability.

C. support of coprocessor.

D. support of MAX / MIN mode 

ANSWER: A

Address line for TRAP is

A. 0023H.

B. 0024H

C. 0033H.

D. 0099H.

ANSWER: B

 Access time is faster for _________.

A. ROM.

B. SRAM.

C. DRAM.

D. ERAM

ANSWER: B

The 8088 can also process the data is coded a___________.

A. BCD

B. ABCD

C. CDD

D. CDA

ANSWER: A

 ASCII Stands for_____________________.

A. american standard code for information interchange

B. american code for information interchange

C. american standard code for interchange

D. american standard code e

ANSWER: A

How many segments are active at a time________

A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 1

ANSWER: B

In ADC 0808 if _______ pin high enables output

A. EOC.

B. I/P0-I/P7.

C. SOC.

D. OE.

ANSWER: D

CS Stands for _____________________.

A. code segement

B. code stack

C. code stock 

D. codes segment

ANSWER: A

The8088 has_______________________.

A. 4 general purpose registers

B. 5 general purpose registers

C. 6 general purpose registers

D. 2 general purpose registers

ANSWER: A

BP Stands for_________________.

A. base pointer

B. basic pointer

C. pointer base

D. base 1p

ANSWER: A

STI Stands for____________________.

A. Set interrupt enable flag

B. Set interrupt enable flag1

C. Set interrupt enable flag2

D. Set interrupt enable flag3

ANSWER: A

For the most Static RAM the write pulse width should be at least

A. 10ns.

B. 60ns.

C. 300ns.

D. 1μs.

ANSWER: B

BURST refresh in DRAM is also called as ___________.

A. concentrated refresh.

B. distributed refresh.

C. hidden refresh.

D. signal refresh

ANSWER: A

For the most Static RAM the maximum access time is about ____________.

A. 1ns.

B. 10ns.

C. 100ns.

D. 1μs

ANSWER: C

The 82C37A acts as_________________________

A. a peripheral controller device

B. a controller device

C. a peripheral device

D. a peripheral

ANSWER: A

The breakdown function can also be used to implement a________________.

A. Software diagnostic tool

B. Software

C. Tool

D. Program

ANSWER: A

THE 82C55A is an ______________________.peripheral.

A. LSI

B. VLSI

C. SSI

D. VSSI

ANSWER: A

The First Microprocessor was__________.

A. Intel 4004

B. 8080

C. 8085

D. 4008

ANSWER: A

The heart of the micro computer is______________

A. MPU

B. CPU

C. VLSI

D. SSI

ANSWER: A

In 1978 Intel introduced the 16 bit Microprocessor 8086 now called as________.

A. M6 800

B. APX 80

C. Zylog z8000

D. Intel 8086

ANSWER: B

Which is a 8 bit Microprocessor

A. Intel 4040

B. Pentium-I

C. 8088

D. Motorala MC-6801

ANSWER: D

Pentium-I, Pentium-II, Pentium-III and Pentium-IV are recently introduced microprocessor by__________.

A. Motorala.

B. Intel.

C. Stephen Mors.

D. HCL.

ANSWER: B

The address bus flow in __________.

A. bidirection.

B. unidirection.

C. mulidirection.

D. circular.

ANSWER: B

Status register is also called as ___________.

A. accumulator.

B. stack.

C. counter.

D. flags

ANSWER: D

The 8088 has ___________number of data transfer instruction.

A. 6

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

ANSWER: A

The 8088 Microprocessor uses__________ V power suppl A. .+5V. B. -5V. C. +12V. D. -12V ANSWER: A 249. The 82C37Aacts as a______________.

A. peripheral controller device

B. peripheral device

C. controller device

D. device

ANSWER: A

A word of data stored at an__________________________.

A. even address boundary

B. even address boundary1

C. even address boundary2

D. even address boundary3

ANSWER: A

 

 

 

MICROPROCESSORS Solved MCQs Read More »

Data Structures and Algorithms

Data Structures and Algorithms MCQs

A ____________ is a well defined list for solving a particular problem.

A. algorithm.

B. complexity.

C. time.

D. space.

ANSWER: A

Each array declaration need not give, implicitly or explicitly, the information about

A. the name of array

B. the data type of array

C. the first data from the set to be stored

D. the index set of the array

ANSWER: C

The __________notation is used when the function f(n) is bounded both from above and below by the function g(n).

A. Omega

B. Little Oh

C. Oh

D. Theta

ANSWER: D

Which of the following is not a limitation of binary search algorithm

A. must use a sorted array

B. requirement of sorted array is expensive when a lot of insertion and deletions are needed

C. there must be a mechanism to access middle element directly

D. binary search algorithm is not efficient when the data elements more than 1500.

ANSWER: D

State True or False for internal sorting algorithms. i) Internal sorting are applied when the entire collection if data to be sorted is small enough that the sorting can take place within main memory. ii) The time required to read or write is considered to be significant in evaluating the performance of internal sorting.

A. i-True, ii-True

B. i-True, ii-False

C. i-False, ii-True

D. i-False, ii-False

 

ANSWER: B

The memory address of fifth element of an array can be calculated by the formula

A. LOC(Array[5]=Base(Array)+w(5-lower bound), where w is the number of words per memory cell for the array

B. LOC(Array[5])=Base(Array[5])+(5-lower bound), where w is the number of words per memory cell for the array

C. LOC(Array[5])=Base(Array[4])+(5-Upper bound), where w is the number of words per memory cell for the array

D. None of above

ANSWER: A

In fixed- length storage, all records have same number of __________.

A. record.

B. address.

C. code.

D. field.

ANSWER: D

In variable length storage, two dollar signs are used to denote the __________.

A. end of the string.

B. beginning of the string.

C. mid-level of the string.

D. index.

ANSWER: A

In linked storage, linearly ordered sequence of memory cells is called as__________.

A. link.

B. nodes.

C. thread.

D. list.

ANSWER: B

The ________notation is used when the function g(n) defines a lower bound for the function f(n).

A. Omega

B. Theta

C. Little Oh

D. Big Oh

ANSWER: A

The ___________ notation defines an upper bound function g(n) for f(n)which represents the space/time complexity of the algorithm.

A. Big Oh

B. Little Oh

C. Omega

D. Theta

ANSWER: A

Arrays whose rows or columns begin with different numbers of data elements and end with unused storage locations are said to be ______.

A. multidimensional array

B. jagged array

C. row matrix

D. column matrix

ANSWER: B

In preorder traversal the root is processed ________.

A. first

B. second

C. third

D. randomly

ANSWER: A

Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are ___________.

A. processor and memory.

B. complexity and capacity.

C. time and space.

D. data and space.

ANSWER: C

The time factor, when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by ____________.

A. counting microseconds.

B. counting the number of key operations.

C. counting the kilobytes of algorithm.

D. counting number of lines.

ANSWER: B

The space factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by __________.

A. counting the maximum memory needed by the algorithm.

B. counting the minimum memory needed by the algorithm.

C. counting the average memory needed by the algorithm.

D. counting the maximum disk space needed by the algorithm.

ANSWER: A

Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory

A. Best case.

B. Worst case.

C. Average case.

D. Null case.

ANSWER: D

The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when _____________.

A. item is somewhere in the middle of the array.

B. item is not in the array at all.

C. item is the last element in the array.

D. item is the first element in the array.

ANSWER: B

Processing each element in list is called as ____________.

A. Indexing.

B. Traversing.

C. Sorting.

D. Searching.

ANSWER: B

Finding the location of the element is called as______________.

A. traversing

B. searching.

C. concatenation.

D. indexing.

ANSWER: B

Combine two elements to a single list called as_______________.

A. merging.

B. traversing.

C. searching.

D. sorting.

ANSWER: A

Arranging elements in some type of order _______________.

A. merging.

B. traversing.

C. searching.

D. sorting.

ANSWER: D

A ________________ is a list of finite number and of homogeneous data elements.

A. linear array.

B. sequential array.

C. selection array.

D. pointer.

ANSWER:A

 The free node linked list is also called as ________.

A. free pool.

B. empty pool.

C. unavailable list.

D. inaccessible list

ANSWER: A

25. ______________ is a collection of related data items.

A. Record.

B. Attribute.

C. Field.

D. Identifiers.

ANSWER: A

 The user defined names given to various data items are called as_____________.

A. record.

B. attributes.

C. field.

D. identifiers.

ANSWER: D

 ______________ is a collection of similar records.

A. Records.

B. File.

C. Field.

D. Identifiers.

ANSWER: B

 A record may be collection of ______________ data.

A. homogeneous.

B. non-homogeneous.

C. sequential.

D. indexed.

ANSWER: B

Array elements are referenced by__________.

A. position.

B. pointer.

C. index set.

D. number.

ANSWER: C

Let the address of an array element be A[K],then K is called as the_________.

A. subscript.

B. subscripted variable.

C. bound.

D. index variable.

ANSWER: A

What will be the output of the following arithmetic expression  5+3*2%10-8*6

A. -37.

B. -42.

C. -32.

D. -28.

ANSWER: A

 An m x n array has _________number of elements.

A. m.

B. n.

C. m2.

D. m x n.

ANSWER: D

The sequence (1,1.,(2,1.,(3,1.,(1,2.,(2,2.,(3,2.,….represents _________.

A. row major order.

B. column major order.

C. random order.

D. successive order.

ANSWER: B

Base address is the address of __________. 

A. last element.

B. first element.

C. middle element.

D. pivot element.

ANSWER: B

Pointers stores ______of an element.

A. value.

B. address.

C. operation.

D. data.

ANSWER: B

Records can be represented using _______ in memory.

A. strings.

B. two dimensional arrays.

C. linear arrays.

D. parallel arrays.

ANSWER: D

A BST is traversed in the following order recursively: Right, root, left The output sequence will be in

A. Ascending order

B. Descending order

C. Bitomic sequence

D. No specific order

ANSWER: B

The first step of development of an algorithm is______.

A. Problem analysis.

B. Problem statement.

C. Algorithm analysis.

D. Implementation.

ANSWER: A

Separating group items from sub items is called________.

A. separation.

B. quantification.

C. qualification.

D. purification.

ANSWER: C

A linked list has __________ parts in each node.

A. two.

B. three.

C. four.

D. five.

ANSWER: A

The pointer of last node contains __________.

A. list pointer.

B. next pointer.

C. start.

D. null pointer.

ANSWER: D

Collection of deleted space onto free-pool is ________.

A. collection.

B. storage.

C. garbage collection.

D. tagging.

ANSWER: C

The situation that arises when trying to insert an item in linked list when free pool is empty is called _________.

A. underflow.

B. empty.

C. null.

D. overflow.

ANSWER: D

________ is the situation where linked list is empty and trying to delete an item.

A. Overflow.

B. Underflow.

C. Null.

D. Empty.

ANSWER: B

Which of the following is true while inserting a new node in the list

A. Check there is node in the list.

B. Check there is node in the free pool.

C. Check node in the list and free pool.

D. All the above.

ANSWER: B

Which of the following is true, while deleting a node from the list

A. Check if there is node in the list.

B. Check in the free pool.

C. Check node in the list and free pool.

D. All the above.

ANSWER: A

.Header linked list contains header node at the _________ of the list.

A. end B. beginning

C. middle

D. second position

ANSWER: B

___________is the header list where last node contains null pointer.

A. circular header.

B. 2 way list.

C. linked list.

C. start.

D. null pointer.

ANSWER: D

Collection of deleted space onto free-pool is ________.

A. collection.

B. storage.

C. garbage collection.

D. tagging.

ANSWER: C

The situation that arises when trying to insert an item in linked list when free pool is empty is called _________.

A. underflow.

B. empty. C. null.

D. overflow.

ANSWER: D

________ is the situation where linked list is empty and trying to delete an item.

A. Overflow.

B. Underflow.

C. Null. D. Empty.

ANSWER: B

Which of the following is true while inserting a new node in the list

A. Check there is node in the list.

B. Check there is node in the free pool.

C. Check node in the list and free pool. D. All the above.

ANSWER: B

Which of the following is true, while deleting a node from the list

A. Check if there is node in the list.

B. Check in the free pool.

C. Check node in the list and free pool. D. All the above.

ANSWER: A

Header linked list contains header node at the _________ of the list.

A. end

B. beginning

C. middle

D. second position

ANSWER: B

___________is the header list where last node contains null pointer.

A. circular header.

B. 2 way list.

C. linked list.

D. grounded header list.

ANSWER: D

________ is the header list where last node points back to header node.

A. circular.

B. grounded.

C. linked.

D. 2-way.

ANSWER: A

The list which can be traversed forward & backward is ___________ list.

A. circular

B. header

C. 2-way

D. grounded

ANSWER: C

_________ is an operation to add a new value.

A. Traversing.

B. Inserting.

C. Searching.

D. Looking.

ANSWER: B

Which of the following data structure can’t store the non-homogeneous data elements

A. Arrays.

B. Records.

C. Structure.

D. All of the above.

ANSWER: A

Which of the following is the best way to represent matrices

A. linear arrays.

B. two dimensional arrays.

C. pointers.

D. structure.

ANSWER: B

In bubble sort algorithm, the condition flag=0 indicates that _________.

A. the list is not sorted.

B. there are no items in the list.

C. the items are interchanged.

D. the list is already sorted

ANSWER: D

Which of the following is true regarding the difference between linear array and a record?(I). An array is suitable for homogeneous data but the data items in a record may have different data type. (II). In a record, there may not be a natural ordering in opposed to linear array. (III). A record form a hierarchical structure but a linear array does not.

A. Only I is true.

B. Only II is true

C. II and III are true.

D. I,II and III are true.

ANSWER: D

Which of the following statement is false

A. Arrays are dense lists and static data structure.

B. Data elements in linked list need not be stored in adjacent space in memory.

C. Pointers store the next data element of a list.

D. Linked lists are collection of the nodes that contain information part and next pointer.

ANSWER: C

Binary search algorithm can not be applied to ____________.

A. sorted linked list.

B. sorted binary trees.

C. sorted linear array.

D. pointer array.

ANSWER: A

LINK [START]=NULL in the grounded linked list indicates that the __________. A. list is full

B. list is empty

C. list cannot store items

D. no space to insert items

ANSWER: B

START=NULL should be true for ____________ to occur

A. underflow.

B. overflow.

C. houseful.

D. saturated.

ANSWER: A

Which of the following is two way lists

A. Grounded header list

B. Circular header list

C. Linked list with header, left pointer and right pointer nodes

D. Singly linked list.

ANSWER: C

 Which of the following name does relate to stack

A. FIFO lists.

B. LIFO list.

C. Files.

D. Circular list

ANSWER: B

 A __________ is a list of elements in which an element may be inserted or deleted at only one end.

A. deque.

B. queue.

C. stack.

D. recursion. 

ANSWER: A

_________________ is the term used to delete an element from a stack.

A. Push.

B. Pop.

C. Queue.

D. Priority queue.

ANSWER: B

When the operator symbol placed before two operands, then the notation is called ______________.

A. reverse polish.

B. postfix.

C. polish.

D. Prefix.

ANSWER: D

A _____________ is a list of elements in which elements are inserted at one end and deletion at the other end.

A. deque.

B. queue.

C. stack

D. recursion.

ANSWER: B

Queue is also called as __________.

A. FIFO.

B. LIFO.

C. SIRO.

D. RISO.

ANSWER: A

Which one of the following sequence can obtain the output using stack assuming that the input is 1,2,3,4,5

A. 3,4,5,1,2. B. 3,4,5,2,1.

C. 1,5,2,3,4.

D. 5,4,3,2,1.

ANSWER: D

A collection of elements in which the element has been assigned a priority___________.

A. priority queue.

B. stack.

C. deque.

D. queue.

ANSWER: A

FIFO is the short form of ___________. A. First In First Out.

B. First In Final Out.

C. Final In First Out.

D. Final In Final Out.

ANSWER: A

The term deque is a contraction of the name________.

A. double ended queue.

B. single ended queue.

C. double queue.

D. single queue.

ANSWER: A

In executing the procedure PUSH, one must first test whether there is room in the stack for the stack new item; if not then we have the condition known as_________.

A. underflow.

B. overflow.

C. pop.

D. none.

ANSWER: B

A_________ operation into STACK is accomplished by inserting a node into the front or start of the list.

A. POOP.

B. PUSH.

C. START.

D. none.

ANSWER: B

A pointer variable ___________ contains the location of the top element of the stack.

A. MAXSTX.

B. TOP.

C. null.

D. BOTTOM.

ANSWER: B

The ________field of the nodes hold the data elements of the stack.

A. INFO.

B. LINK.

C. stack.

D. queues.

ANSWER: A

In executing the procedure POP ,one must test whether there is an element in the stack to be deleted, if not then the condition is known as___________.

A. stack.

B. recursion.

C. overflow.

D. underflow.

ANSWER: D

A _________operation is undertaken by deleting the node pointed to by the START pointer in stack. A. MAXSTK.

B. POP.

C. LINK.

D. INFO.

ANSWER: B

The condition TOP=0 indicates ___________.

A. stack is empty.

B. stack is full.

C. stack is unavailable.

D. stack overflows.

ANSWER: A

Recursion can be implemented by the use of ___________ data structure.

A. stack.

B. queues.

C. link.

D. pointer.

ANSWER: A

The ______ is not a sorting algorithm.

A. quick sort.

B. binary search.

C. bubble sort.

D. heap sort.

ANSWER: B

Linear search is also called as __________.

A. consecutive search.

B. reverse search

C. sequential search.

D. binary search.

ANSWER: C

The address of the first and last element of each sub list called as_________.

A. push values.

B. pop values.

C. boundary values.

D. pointer.

ANSWER: C

Deletion in a queue occurs at _________ end.

A. front.

B. rear.

C. top.

D. both.

ANSWER: A

Insertion in queue takes place at the ________ end.

A. front.

B. rear.

C. push.

D. pop.

ANSWER: B

 The __________ function is a function with two arguments each of which can be assigned any non negative integer.

A. Linear

B. Polynomial

C. Well defined

D. Ackermann

ANSWER: D

 The length Li in a multidimensional arrays is calculated by using the formula ______.

A. Li =upper bound – lower bound + 1.

B. Li = upper bound + lower bound – 1

C. Li = upper bound – lower bound – 1.

D. Li = upper bound – lower bound.

ANSWER: A

In a circular queue the value of r will be ___________.

A. r=r+1

B. r=(r+1)% [QUEUE_SIZE -1]

C. r=(r+1)% QUEUE_SIZE

D. r=(r-1)% QUEUE_SIZE

ANSWER: A

 What will be the value of top, if there is a size of stack STACK_SIZE is 5

A. 5

B. 6

C. 4

D. none

ANSWER: A

 The initial configuration of the queue is a,b,c,d (a is the front end). To get the configuration d,c,b,a one needs a minimum of 

A. 2 deletions and 3 additions

B. 3 additions and 2 deletions

C. 3 deletions and 3 additions

D. 3 deletions and 4 additions

ANSWER: C

 Identify the data structure which allows deletions at both ends of the list but insertion at only one end.

A. input-restricted deque.

B. output-restricted deque.

C. priority queues.

D. none of above.

ANSWER: A

 The number of possible ordered trees with three nodes A,B,C is

A. 11

B. 12

C. 13

D. 14

ANSWER: B

 

The __________ function is a function with two arguments each of which can be assigned any non negative integer.

A. Linear

B. Polynomial

C. Well defined

D. Ackermann

ANSWER: D

The length Li in a multidimensional arrays is calculated by using the formula ______.

A. Li =upper bound – lower bound + 1.

B. Li = upper bound + lower bound – 1

C. Li = upper bound – lower bound – 1.

D. Li = upper bound – lower bound. ANSWER: A

In a circular queue the value of r will be ___________.

A. r=r+1

B. r=(r+1)% [QUEUE_SIZE -1]

C. r=(r+1)% QUEUE_SIZE

D. r=(r-1)% QUEUE_SIZE

ANSWER: A

 

Which of the following data structure is linear type

A. Tree.

B. Forest.

C. Queues.

D. None of the above.

ANSWER: C

Which data structure is suitable for representing hierarchical relationship between the elements

A. Dequeue.

B. Linked lists.

C. Tree.

D. Array.

ANSWER: A

An expression is a collection of ___________.

A. operands.

B. operators.

C. symbols.

D. operands and operators.

ANSWER: D

A binary tree T is defined as a finite set of elements called________.

A. nodes.

B. arrays.

C. stacks.

D. terminal.

ANSWER: A

The nodes with no successor are called as________.

A. successive nodes.

B. terminal node.

C. sub tree.

D. child.

ANSWER: B

The number of binary trees with 3 nodes which when traversed in postorder given the sequence A,B,C is ____________.

A. 3.

B. 9.

C. 7.

D. 5.A

NSWER: D

 A terminal node in a tree is called as _________.

A. leaf.

B. branch.

C. node.

D. root.

ANSWER: A

 

98. The path ending in a leaf of a tree is called as___________.

A. branch.

B. node.

C. pointer.

D. root.

ANSWER: A

Any invalid address is denoted by _____________.

A. null.

B. pointer.

C. avail.

D. memory.

ANSWER: A

Matrices with a relatively high proportion of zero entries are called __________.

A. sparse matrices.

B. diagonal matrices.

C. triangular matrices.

D. zero order matrices.

ANSWER: A

Special pointers in a binary tree are called as_________.

A. threads.

B. tags.

C. nodes.

D. headers.

ANSWER: A

An elegant sorting algorithm that uses heap is called _________.

A. heap.

B. heap sort.

C. max heap.

D. quick sort.A

NSWER: B

 The second matrix, where nonzero entries can only occur on the diagonal or on elements immediately above or below the diagonal is called a _________.

A. sparse matrix.

B. triangular matrix.

C. tridiagonal matrix.

D. zero-order matrix.

ANSWER: C

Tower of Hanoi is an example application for ___________.

A. stack.

B. queue.

C. recursion.

D. linear list.

ANSWER: C

 ___________data structures combine the advantages of the sorted array and the linked list. 

A. Sorted .

B. Linked tree.

C. Binary search tree.

D. Tree.

ANSWER: C

106. When the operator symbol is placed between its two operands the notation is called ________.

A. infix.

B. postfix.

C. prefix.

D. inter operator.

ANSWER: A

If s1 is left successor of node N and s2 is the right successor of node N then, N is _______of s1 and s2.

A. child.

B. grandchild.

C. parent.

D. descendant.

ANSWER: C

How many standard ways are there to traverse a binary tree

A. one.

B. two.

C. three.

D. four.

ANSWER: C

The tree T is said to be ________ if all its levels, except possibly the last, have the maximum number of possible nodes, and if all the nodes at the last level appear as far left as possible.

A. weighted tree.

B. complete.

C. extended.

D. B-tree.

ANSWER: B

List of adjacency nodes, are also called as _________.

A. successors.

B. boundary.

C. edges.

D. root.

ANSWER: A

The root is processed before its subtrees in _______ traversal.

A. inorder.

B. preorder.

C. postorder.

D. all of the above.

ANSWER: B

The average running time f(n) to search an item in a binary tree T with n elements is ______.

A. O(n2).

B. O(log2n).

C. O(n).

D. O(n3).

ANSWER: B

The following sequence of operation is performed on stack : push(1),push(2),pop,push(1),push(2),pop,pop,pop,push(2),pop. The sequence of popped out values are

A. 2,2,1,1,2

B. 2,2,1,2,2

C. 2,1,2,2,1

D. 2,1,2,2,2

ANSWER: A

Tree is a ___________ structure.

A. linear.

B. non-linear.

C. circular.

D. pointer.

ANSWER: B

The number of swapping needed to sort numbers 8,22,7,9,31,19,5,13 in ascending order using bubble sort is

A. 11

B. 12

C. 13

D. 14

ANSWER: D

116. Binary trees with special pointers namely threads are called ____________.

A. linked trees.

B. pointing trees.

C. extended trees.

D. threaded trees.

ANSWER: D

A tree T is called __________ , if each node N in T satisfies – the value at N is greater than every value in the left subtree of N and is less than the value in the right subtree of N.

A. binary search tree.

B. extended tree.

C. B-tree.

D. rooted tree.

ANSWER: A

__________ is the level number of the root node.

A. 1.

B. 0.

C. -1.

D. 5.A

NSWER: B

119. _______is the technique that is used to restore the balance of the search tree.

A. Rotations.

B. Resolutions.

C. Revolutions.

D. Recursions.

ANSWER: A

Which of the following data structure is used in retrieval and manipulation of data stored in external memory

A. Binary search.

B. Quick sort.

C. m-way search trees.

D. Heap sort.

ANSWER: C

The ___________ pointer of header node points the root node.

A. left.

B. right.

C. null.

D. node.

ANSWER: A

The pointer which replaces null entries pointing to higher nodes are ___________.

A. next.

B. full.

C. high.

D. threads.

ANSWER: D

The complexity of linear search algorithm is __________.

A. O(n).

B. O(log n).

C. O(n2).

D. O(n log n).

ANSWER: A

The complexity of Binary search algorithm is ____________.

A. O(n).

B. O(log2n).

C. O(n2).

D. O(n log n).

ANSWER: B

The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is _____________.

A. O(n).

B. O(log n).

C. O(n2).

D. O(n log n).

ANSWER: C

The complexity of merge sort algorithm is_____________.

A. O(n).

B. O(log n).

C. O(n2).

D. O(n log n).

ANSWER: D

Which of the following linked list does not have any NULL links

A. Single linked list.

B. Linear doubly linked list.

C. Circular linked list.

D. Two way linked list.

ANSWER: C

If yyy, xxx and zzz are the elements of a lexically ordered binary tree, then in preorder traversal which node will be traverse first

A. xxx.

B. yyy.

C. zzz.

D. cannot be determined.

ANSWER: A

In a balance binary tree the height of two sub trees of every node can not differ by more than __________.

A. 2.

B. 1.

C. 0.

D. 3.A

NSWER: B

130. The result of evaluating prefix expression */b+-dacd, where a = 3, b = 6, c = 1, d= 5 is __________.

A. 0.

B. 5.

C. 10.

D. 15.

ANSWER: C

In an array representation of binary tree the right child of root will be placed at the _______ location.

A. second.

B. fifth.

C. third.

D. first.

ANSWER: C

 The dummy header in linked list contains _________.

A. first record of the actual data.

B. last record of the actual data.

C. pointer to the last record of the actual data.

D. all the above.

ANSWER: A

 In which of the following algorithm, the smallest element is found first and placed in the first position, 

then the next smallest in the second place, and so on

A. Merge sort.

B. Selection sort.

C. Insertions sort.

D. Radix sort.

ANSWER: B

Given two sorted lists of size m and n respectively.The number of comparisons needed in the worst case by the merge sort algorithm will be _______.

A. mn.

B. max(m,n).

C. min(m,n).

D. m+n-1.

ANSWER: D

Very slow way of sorting is _______________.

A. insertion sort.

B. heap sort.

C. bubble sort.

D. quick sort.

ANSWER: A

Sorting a file F usually refers to sorting F with respect to a particular key called _____________.

A. basic key.

B. primary key.

C. starting key.

D. index key.

ANSWER: B

Selection sort first finds the _________________ element in the list and put it in the first position.

A. middle element.

B. largest element.

C. last element.

D. smallest element.

ANSWER: D

The operation that combines the element is of A and B in a single sorted list C is called _______________.

A. inserting.

B. mixing.

C. merging.

D. sharing.

ANSWER: C

__________________ sorting is good to use when alphabetizing large list of names.

A. Merge.

B. Heap.

C. Radix.

D. Bubble.

ANSWER: C

 

Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide-and-conquer type

A. Bubble Sort.

B. Insertion Sort.

C. Quick Sort.

D. Merge Sort.

ANSWER: C

____________ is the complexity of the merge sort algorithm for both worst and average case.

A. O(n log n).

B. O(n log+n).

C. O(n+log n).

D. O(log n).

ANSWER: A

____________ algorithm is frequently used when the total number of elements is small.

A. Heap sort.

B. Insertion sort.

C. Bubble sort.

D. Quick sort.

ANSWER: B

To represent hierarchical relationship between elements, which data structure is suitable

A. Deque

B. Tree

C. Stack

D. all the above

ANSWER: B

One can convert a binary tree into its mirror image by traversing it in__________.

A. inorder.

B. preorder.

C. postorder.

D. any order.

ANSWER: C

The best average behaviour is shown by______

A. Quick Sort

B. Merge Sort

C. Insertion Sort

D. Heap Sort

ANSWER: A

If the node N is a terminal node in a binary tree then its ______

A. right and left tree is empty.

B. left tree is empty and right tree is full.

C. right tree is empty and left tree is full.

D. right and left tree is full.

ANSWER: A

If the address of A[1][1] and A[2][1] are 1000 and 1010 respectively occupies 2 bytes then the array has been stored in _________ order.

A. row major

B. column major

C. matix major

D. none of these

ANSWER: A

An algorithm is made up of two independent time complexities in the order ______________.

A. f(n) x g(n).

B. Max ( f(n),g(n)).

C. Min (f(n),g(n)).

D. f(n) + g(n).

ANSWER: B

Which of the following condition shows that stack is full

A. TOP=NULL. .

B. TOP=MAX.

C. TOP=MAX+1.

D. POP=MAX-1

ANSWER: B

The elements are removed from a stack in _______ order.

A. hierarchical.

B. inorder.

C. reverse.

D. alternate.

ANSWER: C

 

 

 

Data Structures and Algorithms Read More »

AJAX PROGRAMMING USING ASP.NET MCQs

AJAX Programming Using ASP.NET MCQs

1. What is AJAX
A. is a program
B. is a country name
C. is a football club name
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A

2. What sever support AJAX ?
A. SMTP
B. WWW
C. HTTP
D. All the above
ANSWER: C

3. AJAX Stands for_________________
A. Asynchronous Javascript and XML
B. Abstract JSON and XML
C. Another Java Abstraction for X-Windows
D. Another Java and XML Library
ANSWER: A

4. What makes Ajax unique?
A. It works as a stand-alone Web-development tool.
B. It works the same with all Web browsers.
C. It uses C++ as its programming language.
D. It makes data requests asynchronously.
ANSWER: D

5. What does the XMLHttpRequest object accomplish in Ajax?
A. It’s the programming language used to develop Ajax applications.
B. It provides a means of exchanging structured data between the Web server and client.
C. It provides the ability to asynchronously exchange data between Web browsers and a Web server.
D. It provides the ability to mark up and style the display of Web-page text.
ANSWER: C

6. Of the following technologies, which one provides the ability to dynamically interact with Web page layout?
A. JavaScript.
B. XML.
C. Document Object Model.
D. HTML.
ANSWER: C

7. What is the first step in creating a Joke of the Day application?
A. Create the application’s text file.
B. Write the application’s HTML.
C. Turn the HTML application into an Ajax application.
D. Upload the application to a Web server.
ANSWER: B

8. What combination of technologies gives AJAX its name?
A. ASP and XAML
B. Asynchronous JavaScript and XML
C. Autonomic Computing and DHTML
D. Atlas and XML
ANSWER: B

9. Which one of these legendary Greek mythical figures or places is the code name for Microsoft’s version of AJAX ?
A. Oracle
B. Atlas
C. Hercules
D. Delphi
ANSWER: B

10. Which Web browser is the least optimized for Microsoft’s version of AJAX?
A. Firefox
B. Opera
C. Safari
D. Internet Explorer
ANSWER: C

11. Which one of these technologies is NOT used in AJAX?

A. CSS

B. DOM
C. DHTML

D. FLASH

ANSWER: D

12. AJAX comes in _____.

A. 2003

B. 2005

C. 2004

D. 2006

ANSWER: B

13. AJAX made popular by______

A. Microsoft

B. IBM

C. Sun Micro system

D. Google

ANSWER: D

14. AJAX based on ______ .

A. JavaScript and XML

B. JavaScript and Java
C. VBScript and XML

D. JavaScript and HTTP requests

ANSWER: A

15. Using AJAX we can made our web page.

A. more interactive and faster
B. easy to connect web page with server

C. more dynamic

D. None of the above ANSWER: A

16. What does the <noscript> tag do?
A. Enclose text to be displayed by non-JavaScript browsers.

B. Prevents scripts on the page from executing.
C. Describes certain low-budget movies.
D. None of the above

ANSWER: A

17. Why so JavaScript and Java have similar name?

A. JavaScript is a stripped-down version of Java

B. JavaScript’s syntax is loosely based on Java’s

C. They both originated on the island of Java

D. None of the above

ANSWER: B

18. When a user views a page containing a JavaScript program, which machine actually executes the script?

A. The User’s machine running a Web browser
B. The Web server
C. A central machine deep within Netscape’s corporate offices

D. None of the above

ANSWER: A

19. _____ JavaScript is also called client-side JavaScript.

A. Microsoft
B. Navigator
C. LiveWire

D. Native ANSWER: B

20. _______ JavaScript is also called server-side JavaScript

A. Microsoft
B. Navigator

C. LiveWire

D. None of the above

ANSWER: C

21. What does the XMLHttpRequest object accomplish in Ajax?
A. Its the programming language used to develop Ajax applications.
B. It provides a means of exchanging structured data between the Web server and client.
C. It provides the ability to asynchronously exchange data between Web browsers and a Web server.

D. It provides the ability to mark up and style the display of Web-page text.

ANSWER: C

22. ________ Of the following technologies, which one provides the ability to dynamically interact with Web page layout?

A. JavaScript.
B. XML.
C. Document Object Model.

D. HTML.

ANSWER: C

23. The return type of getElementsByClassName() is

A. DOM

B. Document

C. Node
D. NodeList

ANSWER: D

24. What combination of technologies gives AJAX its name?

A. ASP and XAML
B. Asynchronous JavaScript and XML
C. Autonomic Computing and DHTML

D. Atlas and XML

ANSWER: B

25. Which one of these legendary Greek mythical figures or places is the code name for Microsofts version of AJAX ?

A. Oracle B. Atlas
C. Hercules

D. Delphi

ANSWER: B

26. Which Web browser is the least optimized for Microsoft’s version of AJAX?

A. Firefox
B. Opera
C. Safari

D. Internet Explorer

ANSWER: C

27. Which one of these technologies is NOT used in AJAX?

A. CSS

B. DOM

 

C. DHTML

D. Flash

ANSWER: D

28. AJAX comes in ____.

A. 2003

B. 2005

C. 2004

D. 2006

ANSWER: B

29. AJAX made popular by

A. Microsoft
B. IBM
C. Sun Microsystem

D. Google ANSWER: D

30. AJAX based on_____________

A. JavaScript and XML
B. JavaScript and Java
C. VBScript and XML

D. JavaScript and HTTP requests

ANSWER: A

31. Using AJAX we can made our web page ______________

A. more interactive and faster
B. easy to connect web page with server
C. more dynamic

D. None of the above

ANSWER: A

32. A Master Page contains a ScriptManager control and a user wants the AJAX functionality on content page then which control is necessary on content page?

A. AsyncPostBackTrigger

B. ScriptManager
C. ScriptManager Proxy

D. None of the above.

ANSWER: C

33. What are the advantages of AJAX?
A. AJAX is a platform-independent technology

B. It provides partial-page updates
C. Improved performance
D. All of the above

ANSWER: D

34. The UpdatePanel supports two types of triggers: AsyncPostBackTrigger and PostBackTrigger. Choose the correct option regarding the working of these triggers.

A. AsyncPostBackTrigger causes an asynchronous (Ajax) postback.

B. PostBackTrigger causes a normal entire-page postback.

C. AsyncPostBackTrigger causes a normal entire-page postback.

D. Options A and B are Correct.

ANSWER: D

35. Which control is required of every AJAX page to manage the JavaScript files sent to the client and the communication between client and server?

A. UpdatePanel
B. ScriptManager
C. AsyncPostBackTrigger

D. None of the above.

ANSWER: B

36. Which interface you will use wrap an AJAX client control into a custom server control?

A. IScriptManager
B. IScriptControl
C. IScriptAJAX

D. None of the above

ANSWER: A

37. Which control can be used to update only the portion of the page?

A. UpdatePanel
B. ScriptManager
C. AsyncPostBackTrigger

D. None of the above.

ANSWER: A

38. How many ‘ScriptManager’ control can be added on a ASP.NET web page?

A. Only One
B. More than One
C. Only Two

D. None of the above.

ANSWER: A

39. Which method is used to dynamically register client script from code?

A. Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock
B. RegisterScript
C. Page.ClientScript

D. None of the above

ANSWER: A

40. Which control is required for every page that have AJAX Extensions for ASP.NET?

A. UpdatePanel
B. ScriptManager
C. ContentPanel

D. None of the above

ANSWER: B

41. Which of the following is true ?

1. AJAX is a platform-independent technology

2. AJAX can work with web application

3. AJAX can only work with ASP.NET

4. AJAX is a platform-dependent technology

A. 1, 2 B. 1,2,3

C. 1,3,4

D. None of the above

ANSWER: A

42. Which property and method of the Page object do you use to register client script dynamically from code?

A. ScriptManager control is used to dynamically register client script from code.

B. The Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock is used to dynamically register client script from code.

C. ScriptManagerProxy control is used to dynamically register client script from code.

D. None of the above.

ANSWER: B

43. What property and method of the Page object do you use to register client script dynamically from code?

A. ScriptManager control is used to dynamically register client script from code.

B. The Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock is used to dynamically register client script from code.

C. ScriptManagerProxy control is used to dynamically register client script from code.

D. None of the above.

ANSWER: C

44. The XMLHttpRequest object is used to exchange data with a server.True or False?

A. True

B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: A

45. What is the official name of JavaScript?

A. NetscapeScript
B. XMLScript
C. ECMAScript

D. WebScript

ANSWER: C

46. Determine whether the following line is correct or not: With AJAX it is possible to work on an image on the client.

A. No
B. yes
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: B

47. From the provided methods, pick the right one that returns the value of an attribute:

A. attribute[index].text
B. attribute()
C. getAttribute()

D. All of above

ANSWER: C

48. A ________________________ to the JavaScript engine starts all subsequent requests to the server.

A. XML Document
B. Function call
C. HTML page

D. XHTML Tag

ANSWER: B

49. In AJAX, the word “Synchronous” describes _______________.

A. Ability to handle processes independently from other processes

B. Processes are dependent upon other processes
C. Processes are not fully dependant on other processes

D. All the processes can be run independently

ANSWER: B

50. In Internet Explorer, from the following, which one is the right option to obtain an XMLHttpRequest object?

A. if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { httpReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); }
B. if (window.ActiveXObject) { httpReq = new ActiveXObject(“Microsoft.XMLHTTP”); }
C. if (window.ActiveXObject) { httpReq = new GetObject(“Microsoft XMLHttpRequest”); }

D. if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { httpReq = new XMLHttpRequest(“IE”); }

ANSWER: A

51. To get the response from a server, responseText or responseXML property of the XMLHttpRequest object is used.

A. No
B. yes
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: B

52. What will be the primary step when you have to send a request using JavaScript to a server? A. You will call the connect() method of the XMLHttp object
B. You will call the connect() method of the XMLHttp object
C. You will call the open() method of the XMLHttp object

D. None of above

ANSWER: C

53. The responseText property returns the response as a string format.True or False?

A. True

B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: A

54. What does the Chorus believe has afflicted Ajax?

A. Madness.
B. Jealousy.
C.  Envy.

D. Fear.

ANSWER: A

55. Ajax stands for Synchronous JavaScript and XML.

A. True

B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: B

56. Ajax is a programming language.

A. True

B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: B

57. Regarding the XMLHttpRequest Object, does the order in which one calls the “open” method and assign a function to the “onreadystatechange” event handler matter?

A. Yes
B. No
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: B

58. Can a call to the “send” method fire an error (assuming the user’s browser supports the XMLHttpRequest Object and the “send” method )?

A. No
B. Yes
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: A

59. ActiveX can be disabled via browser settings.

A. True

B. False
C. None of the above D. Not Correct

ANSWER: A

60. The XMLHttpRequest object can be disabled via browser settings.

A. True

B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: B

61. Assuming that “xmlhttp” is a user-defined variable that carrys the Ajax requesting object, xmlhttp.status can carry a value of 4 after a successful request.

A. True
B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: B

62. The XMLHttpRequest object supports a method called “quit”.

A. True

B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: B

63. Assuming that “xmlhttp” is a user-defined variable that carrys the Ajax requesting object, xmlhttp.status can carry a value of 0 after a successful request.

A. True
B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: B

64. The XMLHttpRequest object can be used on subdomain1.mysite.com to request a page located at subdomain2.mysite.com according to the specification.

A. True
B. False
C. Not Correct
D. None of the above

ANSWER: B

65. Regarding the XMLHttpRequest Object, does the order in which one calls the open method and assign a function to the onreadystatechange event handler matter?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not Correct
D. None of the above

ANSWER: B

66. Can a call to the send method fire an error.

A. Yes

B. No
C. Not Correct
D. None of the above

ANSWER: B

67. The XMLHttpRequest object can be disabled via browser settings.

A. True

B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct

ANSWER: B

68. Assuming that xmlhttp is a user-defined variable that carrys the Ajax requesting object, xmlhttp.status can carry a value of 4 after a successful request.

A. True
B. False
C. None of the above

D. Not Correct ANSWER: B

69. The XMLHttpRequest object supports a method called quit.

A. False

B. True
C. Not Correct
D. None of the above

ANSWER: A

70. The XMLHttpRequest object can be used on subdomain1.mysite.com to request a page located at subdomain2.mysite.com according to the specification.

A. True
B. False
C. Not Correct
D. None of the above

ANSWER: B

71. What does XML stand for?
A. eXtra Modern Link
B. eXtensible Markup Language

C. Example Markup Language

D. X-Markup Language

ANSWER: B

72. Which statement is true?
A. All XML elements must have a closing tag

B. All XML elements must be lower case
C. All XML documents must have a DTD
D. All the statements are true

ANSWER: B

73. What is the correct syntax of the declaration which defines the XML version?:

A. <xml version=”A.0″ />
B. <?xml version=”A.0″?>
C. <?xml version=”A.0″ />

D. None of the above

ANSWER: B

74. Which of the following programs support XML or XML applications?:

A. Internet Explorer 5.5
B. Netscape D.7
C. RealPlayer.

D. both A and B

ANSWER: D

75. Well formed XML document means
A. it contains a root element
B. it contain an element
C. it contains one or more elements
D. must contain one or more elements and root element must contain all other elements

ANSWER: D

76. Comment in XML document is given by

A. <?– –>
B. <!– –!>
C. <!– –>

D. </– — >

ANSWER: C

77. When processing an output XML, new line symbols
A. Are copied into output as is, i.e. CR+LF for Windows, CR for Macintosh, LF for Unix.

B. Are converted to single LF symbol
C. Are converted to single CR symbol
D. Are discarded

ANSWER: B

78. Which of the following strings are a correct XML name?

A. xmlExtension
B. xslNewElement
C. XMLElement#123

D. All

ANSWER: B

79. What are the predefined attributes

A. xml:lang
B. xml:space
C. both

D. none.

ANSWER: C

80. XML uses the features of
A. HTML

B. XHTML C. VML
D. SGML

ANSWER: D

81. Parameter entities can appear in A. xml file
B. dtd file
C. xsl file

D. Both 1 and 2 ANSWER: B

82. The XML DOM object is A. Entity

B. Entity Reference
C. Comment Reference
D. Comment Data

ANSWER: B

83. The XML DOM object is A. Entity

B. Entity Reference
C. Comment Reference

D. Comment Data

ANSWER: B

84. Whats so great about XML? A. Easy data exchange
B. High speed on network
C. High speed on network

D. Both A. & B. ANSWER: D

85. For XML document to be valid
A. document need to be well formed also
B. document need not to be well formed
C. document need to be well formed & valid
D. document validity has no relationship with well formedness

ANSWER: C

86. The attribute used to define a new namespace is A. XMLNS
B. XmlNameSpace
C. Xmlns

D. XmlNs ANSWER: C

87. Which of the below is a lieral reverse of Ajax?

A. HTTP

B. HTML

C. XML

D. Comet

ANSWER: D

88. Which of the following uses scripted HTTP?

A. XML

B. HTML
C. Ajax
D. All of the above

ANSWER: C

89. Which method is an alternative of the property location of a window object?

A. submit()
B. locate()
C. load()

D. None of the above

ANSWER: A

90. Which property helps to initiate the HTTP requests?
A. request

B. location
C. send
D. None of the mentioned

ANSWER: B

91. The other name for Comet is A. Server Push
B. Ajax Push
C. HTTP Streaming

D. All of the above

ANSWER: D

92. Which is the element that has a src property to initiate HTTP GET request? A. img

B. iframe
C. script
D. Both a and c

ANSWER: D

93. XMLHttpRequest is a

A. Object

B. Class
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

ANSWER: C

94. Which of the following are the features of an HTTP request?

A. URL being requested
B. Optional request body
C. Optional set of request headers

D. All of the above

ANSWER: D

95. Which of the following is a feature of the HTTP response?

A. Mandatory response body
B. Optional response body
C. URL being released

D. Optional set of response headers

ANSWER: A

96. The CSS links properties are
A. :link, :visited, :hover, :active
B. :link, :visit, :hover, :active
C. :link, :visited, :over, :active
D. :link, :visited, :hover, :active, :inactive

ANSWER: A

97. In CSS tables, the possible values for the caption-side property can have the following values.

A. top, bottom, left or right
B. top, bottom, center, left or right
C. top or bottom

D. left or right

ANSWER: A

98. The different ways to associate styles with a HTML document is/are

A. Embedded CSS with <style> element
B. Inline CSS with style attribute.
C. External CSS with <link> element.

D. All of the above

ANSWER: D

99. In a table, the CSS __________ property can be used to specify the amount of space between the borders of each cell.

A. border-padding B. padding
C. spacing
D. border-spacing

ANSWER: D

100. In the head section of each (X)HTML page in which you wish to use an external style sheet, you must include an appropriate ______ element.

A. <link>

B. <src>

C. <style>

D. <css>

ANSWER: A

 

AJAX PROGRAMMING USING ASP.NET MCQs Read More »

Cloud Computing MCQs

Cloud Computing MCQs

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers

What is cloud computing?
a. A method of storing data on physical servers
b. A way to access and manage computer resources over the internet
c. A software application for editing images
d. A type of gaming console
Answer: b. A way to access and manage computer resources over the internet

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of cloud computing?
a. Cost savings
b. Increased scalability
c. Enhanced data security
d. Limited access to data
Answer: d. Limited access to data

What is SaaS in the context of cloud computing?
a. Storage as a Service
b. Software as a Service
c. Security as a Service
d. Server as a Service
Answer: b. Software as a Service

What is the main characteristic of public cloud computing?
a. Shared resources for multiple organizations
b. Exclusive access for a single organization
c. No need for internet connectivity
d. Limited scalability
Answer: a. Shared resources for multiple organizations

What is the purpose of a virtual machine in cloud computing?
a. To create virtual networks
b. To store and manage data
c. To provide a user interface for cloud services
d. To emulate a physical computer system
Answer: d. To emulate a physical computer system

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers for Computer Science Exams

Which of the following is an example of a cloud storage service?
a. Microsoft Word
b. Dropbox
c. Adobe Photoshop
d. QuickBooks
Answer: b. Dropbox

What is the meaning of the term “elasticity” in cloud computing?
a. The ability to automatically scale resources up or down based on demand
b. The ability to create and manage virtual networks
c. The ability to run multiple operating systems on a single physical server
d. The ability to connect to cloud services securely
Answer: a. The ability to automatically scale resources up or down based on demand

What is a private cloud in cloud computing?
a. A cloud service offered exclusively to individuals
b. A cloud service that is free to use
c. A cloud service that is publicly accessible
d. A cloud service that is dedicated to a single organization
Answer: d. A cloud service that is dedicated to a single organization

What is the purpose of load balancing in cloud computing?
a. To encrypt data for secure transmission
b. To distribute network traffic evenly across multiple servers
c. To monitor and manage virtual machines
d. To create virtual private networks
Answer: b. To distribute network traffic evenly across multiple servers

Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing deployment model?
a. Public cloud
b. Private cloud
c. Hybrid cloud
d. Encrypted cloud
Answer: d. Encrypted cloud

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers

What is the difference between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in cloud computing?
a. IaaS refers to Infrastructure as a Service, PaaS refers to Platform as a Service, and SaaS refers to Software as a Service
b. IaaS refers to Internet as a Service, PaaS refers to Platform as a Service, and SaaS refers to Storage as a Service
c. IaaS refers to Internet as a Service, PaaS refers to Platform as a Service, and SaaS refers to Security as a Service
d. IaaS refers to Infrastructure as a Service, PaaS refers to Platform as a Service, and SaaS refers to Security as a Service
Answer: a. IaaS refers to Infrastructure as a Service, PaaS refers to Platform as a Service, and SaaS refers to Software as a Service

What is the main advantage of using a hybrid cloud deployment model in cloud computing?
a. Lower cost
b. Increased security
c. Higher scalability
d. Flexibility to leverage both public and private cloud resources
Answer: d. Flexibility to leverage both public and private cloud resources

Which of the following is NOT a consideration for ensuring data security in cloud computing?
a. Data encryption
b. User authentication
c. Data backups
d. Using public Wi-Fi for accessing cloud services
Answer: d. Using public Wi-Fi for accessing cloud services

What is the role of a hypervisor in cloud computing?
a. To manage virtual machines
b. To provide internet connectivity
c. To store data on physical servers
d. To create virtual private networks
Answer: a. To manage virtual machines

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers for I.T Exams

What is the concept of “pay-as-you-go” in cloud computing?
a. Paying for cloud services only when they are used
b. Paying a fixed monthly fee for unlimited cloud access
c. Paying for cloud services in advance for a discounted rate
d. Paying for cloud services based on the number of virtual machines used
Answer: a. Paying for cloud services only when they are used

Which of the following is an example of a cloud computing provider?
a. Google Docs
b. WhatsApp
c. Netflix
d. Amazon Web Services (AWS)
Answer: d. Amazon Web Services (AWS)

What is the purpose of auto-scaling in cloud computing?
a. To automatically adjust the size of virtual machines
b. To automatically encrypt data at rest
c. To automatically manage virtual networks
d. To automatically backup data to multiple locations
Answer: a. To automatically adjust the size of virtual machines

What is the meaning of the term “multi-tenancy” in cloud computing?
a. The ability to run multiple operating systems on a single physical server
b. The ability to share resources among multiple users or organizations
c. The ability to automatically scale resources based on demand
d. The ability to connect to cloud services securely
Answer: b. The ability to share resources among multiple users or organizations

What is the purpose of a CDN (Content Delivery Network) in cloud computing?
a. To store and manage data in the cloud
b. To create virtual private networks
c. To distribute content across multiple geographically dispersed servers
d. To provide a user interface for cloud services
Answer: c. To distribute content across multiple geographically dispersed servers

What is the main advantage of using cloud computing for disaster recovery?
a. Reduced downtime
b. Lower cost
c. Increased scalability
d. Enhanced data security
Answer: a. Reduced downtime

Cloud Computing Solved MCQs

Which of the following is an example of a public cloud service?
a. Private cloud
b. Hybrid cloud
c. Google Cloud Platform
d. On-premises data center
Answer: c. Google Cloud Platform

What is the purpose of a load balancer in cloud computing?
a. To distribute workloads evenly across multiple servers
b. To encrypt data in transit
c. To manage virtual machines
d. To store data redundantly across multiple servers
Answer: a. To distribute workloads evenly across multiple servers

What is the concept of “elasticity” in cloud computing?
a. The ability to automatically scale resources based on demand
b. The ability to store data in multiple locations
c. The ability to securely access cloud services
d. The ability to run multiple virtual machines on a single physical server
Answer: a. The ability to automatically scale resources based on demand

Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing for businesses?
a. Reduced hardware costs
b. Increased physical security
c. Limited scalability
d. Higher upfront costs
Answer: a. Reduced hardware costs

What is the role of a virtual private cloud (VPC) in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To manage virtual machines
c. To create virtual private networks
d. To store data on physical servers
Answer: c. To create virtual private networks

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers for Competitive Exams of Software Engineering

Which of the following is NOT a cloud deployment model?
a. Public cloud
b. Private cloud
c. On-premises data center
d. Community cloud
Answer: c. On-premises data center

What is the purpose of a snapshot in cloud computing?
a. To create a backup of data
b. To encrypt data at rest
c. To manage virtual networks
d. To distribute content across multiple servers
Answer: a. To create a backup of data

What is the role of a cloud broker in cloud computing?
a. To manage virtual machines
b. To provide internet connectivity
c. To facilitate the use of multiple cloud services from different providers
d. To store data on physical servers
Answer: c. To facilitate the use of multiple cloud services from different providers

What is the meaning of the term “serverless computing” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications without using virtual machines
b. Storing data on physical servers
c. Connecting to cloud services securely
d. Sharing resources among multiple users or organizations
Answer: a. Running applications without using virtual machines

What is the purpose of a cloud gateway in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To manage virtual networks
d. To encrypt data in transit
Answer: b. To store and manage data in the cloud

Best Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers

What is the difference between SaaS (Software as a Service) and PaaS (Platform as a Service) in cloud computing?
a. SaaS provides applications over the internet, while PaaS provides development platforms and tools.
b. SaaS provides virtual machines, while PaaS provides networking services.
c. SaaS provides storage services, while PaaS provides data analytics tools.
d. SaaS provides operating systems, while PaaS provides database management systems.
Answer: a. SaaS provides applications over the internet, while PaaS provides development platforms and tools.

What is the purpose of a CDN (Content Delivery Network) in cloud computing?
a. To manage virtual machines
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute content across multiple servers
d. To create virtual private networks
Answer: c. To distribute content across multiple servers

Which of the following is a characteristic of a private cloud deployment model?
a. Resources are shared among multiple organizations
b. Resources are owned and operated by a third-party provider
c. Resources are dedicated to a single organization
d. Resources are accessed over the public internet
Answer: c. Resources are dedicated to a single organization

What is the meaning of the term “multi-cloud” in cloud computing?
a. Running multiple virtual machines on a single physical server
b. Storing data redundantly across multiple servers
c. Using multiple cloud service providers for different services
d. Sharing resources among multiple users or organizations
Answer: c. Using multiple cloud service providers for different services

What is the purpose of a containerization platform, such as Docker, in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To manage virtual networks
d. To package and distribute applications along with their dependencies
Answer: d. To package and distribute applications along with their dependencies

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers for FPSC Tests

What is the role of a cloud orchestrator in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To manage virtual machines
c. To store and manage data in the cloud
d. To automate the deployment and management of cloud resources
Answer: d. To automate the deployment and management of cloud resources

What is the concept of “pay-as-you-go” pricing in cloud computing?
a. Paying a fixed monthly fee for unlimited cloud resources
b. Paying upfront for a long-term contract for cloud resources
c. Paying based on the actual usage of cloud resources
d. Paying a one-time fee for lifetime access to cloud resources
Answer: c. Paying based on the actual usage of cloud resources

What is the role of a cloud service level agreement (SLA) in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To manage virtual machines
c. To store and manage data in the cloud
d. To define the terms and conditions of service quality and availability
Answer: d. To define the terms and conditions of service quality and availability

Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing for data storage?
a. Limited scalability
b. Increased physical security
c. Higher upfront costs
d. Cost-effective and scalable storage options
Answer: d. Cost-effective and scalable storage options

What is the meaning of the term “serverless” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications without using virtual machines
b. Storing data on physical servers
c. Connecting to cloud services securely
d. Sharing resources among multiple users or organizations
Answer: a. Running applications without using virtual machines

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers for Computer Science Lecturership

What is the purpose of auto-scaling in cloud computing?
a. To manually adjust the size of virtual machines
b. To automate the deployment of cloud resources
c. To optimize the performance and cost-efficiency of applications
d. To manage virtual networks
Answer: c. To optimize the performance and cost-efficiency of applications

Which of the following is an example of an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) cloud service?
a. Amazon S3
b. Google Docs
c. Microsoft Office 365
d. Amazon EC2
Answer: d. Amazon EC2

What is the role of a load balancer in cloud computing?
a. To store and manage data in the cloud
b. To automate the deployment of cloud resources
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To manage virtual networks
Answer: c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers

What is the concept of “elasticity” in cloud computing?
a. The ability to scale resources up or down based on demand
b. The ability to store data redundantly across multiple servers
c. The ability to deploy applications across multiple clouds
d. The ability to manage virtual networks
Answer: a. The ability to scale resources up or down based on demand

What is the role of a hypervisor in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To manage virtual machines
c. To store and manage data in the cloud
d. To package and distribute applications
Answer: b. To manage virtual machines

What is the concept of “geo-replication” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications in multiple geographical locations
b. Storing data redundantly across multiple servers
c. Sharing resources among multiple users or organizations
d. Paying based on the actual usage of cloud resources
Answer: a. Running applications in multiple geographical locations

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers for CS

What is the purpose of data encryption in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To manage virtual networks
d. To package and distribute applications
Answer: b. To store and manage data in the cloud

Which of the following is a challenge of cloud computing in terms of security?
a. Increased physical security
b. Limited scalability
c. Higher upfront costs
d. Data privacy and protection
Answer: d. Data privacy and protection

What is the role of a virtual private cloud (VPC) in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To manage virtual networks
d. To automate the deployment of cloud resources
Answer: c. To manage virtual networks

What is the concept of “vendor lock-in” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications without using virtual machines
b. Storing data on physical servers
c. Dependence on a specific cloud service provider
d. Sharing resources among multiple users or organizations
Answer: c. Dependence on a specific cloud service provider

Cloud Computing MCQs with Solved Answers

What is the purpose of a cloud service level agreement (SLA)?
a. To define the service offerings of a cloud service provider
b. To ensure compliance with data protection regulations
c. To specify the performance, availability, and reliability of cloud services
d. To manage virtual networks
Answer: c. To specify the performance, availability, and reliability of cloud services

What is the concept of “multi-cloud” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications in multiple geographical locations
b. Storing data redundantly across multiple servers
c. Using services from multiple cloud service providers
d. Paying based on the actual usage of cloud resources
Answer: c. Using services from multiple cloud service providers

What is the role of a container in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To package and distribute applications
d. To manage virtual machines
Answer: c. To package and distribute applications

What is the purpose of a cloud deployment model?
a. To define the type of cloud services offered by a provider
b. To specify the performance, availability, and reliability of cloud services
c. To manage virtual networks
d. To describe the location and ownership of cloud resources
Answer: d. To describe the location and ownership of cloud resources

Which of the following is an example of a PaaS (Platform as a Service) cloud service?
a. Amazon S3
b. Google Docs
c. Microsoft Office 365
d. Google App Engine
Answer: d. Google App Engine

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers for Computer Science Students

What is the concept of “serverless computing” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications without using virtual machines
b. Storing data on physical servers
c. Dependence on a specific cloud service provider
d. Sharing resources among multiple users or organizations
Answer: a. Running applications without using virtual machines

What is the purpose of cloud data backup and disaster recovery?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To manage virtual networks
d. To ensure data protection and business continuity
Answer: d. To ensure data protection and business continuity

What is the role of a cloud management platform in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To manage virtual machines and resources across multiple cloud providers
d. To automate the deployment of cloud resources
Answer: c. To manage virtual machines and resources across multiple cloud providers

What is the concept of “cloud bursting” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications in multiple geographical locations
b. Storing data redundantly across multiple servers
c. Automatically scaling resources to a public cloud during peak demand
d. Paying based on the actual usage of cloud resources
Answer: c. Automatically scaling resources to a public cloud during peak demand

What is the purpose of a cloud marketplace?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To share and monetize cloud-based applications and services
d. To manage virtual networks
Answer: c. To share and monetize cloud-based applications and services

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers for Web Administrator Exams

What is the concept of “elasticity” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications without using virtual machines
b. Storing data on physical servers
c. Automatically scaling resources up or down based on demand
d. Sharing resources among multiple users or organizations
Answer: c. Automatically scaling resources up or down based on demand

What is the role of a load balancer in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To manage virtual machines
Answer: c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers

What is the purpose of a cloud access control list (ACL)?
a. To define the service offerings of a cloud service provider
b. To ensure compliance with data protection regulations
c. To specify the performance, availability, and reliability of cloud services
d. To manage permissions for accessing cloud resources
Answer: d. To manage permissions for accessing cloud resources

What is the concept of “autoscaling” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications in multiple geographical locations
b. Storing data redundantly across multiple servers
c. Automatically adjusting resources based on usage patterns
d. Paying based on the actual usage of cloud resources
Answer: c. Automatically adjusting resources based on usage patterns

What is the purpose of a cloud virtual private network (VPN)?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To securely connect on-premises networks to the cloud
d. To manage virtual networks
Answer: c. To securely connect on-premises networks to the cloud

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers Network Administrator

What is the role of a cloud database in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To manage virtual machines
Answer: b. To store and manage data in the cloud

What is the purpose of a cloud load balancer?
a. To define the service offerings of a cloud service provider
b. To ensure compliance with data protection regulations
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To manage virtual networks
Answer: c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers

What is the concept of “cloud-native” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications without using virtual machines
b. Storing data on physical servers
c. Developing applications specifically for cloud environments
d. Sharing resources among multiple users or organizations
Answer: c. Developing applications specifically for cloud environments

What is the purpose of a cloud storage gateway?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To connect on-premises data centers to cloud storage
Answer: d. To connect on-premises data centers to cloud storage

What is the concept of “cloud security groups” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications in multiple geographical locations
b. Storing data redundantly across multiple servers
c. Setting inbound and outbound rules to control network traffic in the cloud
d. Paying based on the actual usage of cloud resources
Answer: c. Setting inbound and outbound rules to control network traffic in the cloud

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers

What is the purpose of a cloud CDN (Content Delivery Network)?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute content across multiple servers for faster delivery
d. To manage virtual networks
Answer: c. To distribute content across multiple servers for faster delivery

What is the concept of “serverless computing” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications without using virtual machines
b. Storing data on physical servers
c. Automatically scaling resources up or down based on demand
d. Developing applications without having to manage the underlying infrastructure
Answer: d. Developing applications without having to manage the underlying infrastructure

What is the role of a cloud monitoring and management tool in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To monitor and manage the performance, availability, and health of cloud resources
d. To manage virtual machines
Answer: c. To monitor and manage the performance, availability, and health of cloud resources

What is the purpose of a cloud data warehouse in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To manage large-scale data analytics and reporting
Answer: d. To manage large-scale data analytics and reporting

What is the concept of “multi-cloud” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications in multiple geographical locations
b. Storing data redundantly across multiple servers
c. Using multiple cloud service providers to meet different requirements
d. Sharing resources among multiple users or organizations
Answer: c. Using multiple cloud service providers to meet different requirements

Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers

What is the purpose of a cloud firewall in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To control and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic to and from cloud resources
Answer: d. To control and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic to and from cloud resources

What is the concept of “cloud bursting” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications without using virtual machines
b. Storing data on physical servers
c. Automatically scaling resources up or down based on demand
d. Moving workloads from on-premises data centers to the cloud during peak usage periods
Answer: d. Moving workloads from on-premises data centers to the cloud during peak usage periods

What is the purpose of a cloud container registry in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To store and manage container images for containerized applications
Answer: d. To store and manage container images for containerized applications

What is the role of a cloud marketplace in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To discover, purchase, and deploy cloud services and solutions
Answer: d. To discover, purchase, and deploy cloud services and solutions

What is the concept of “cloud governance” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications in multiple geographical locations
b. Storing data redundantly across multiple servers
c. Implementing policies, processes, and controls to manage cloud resources
d. Paying based on the actual usage of cloud resources
Answer: c. Implementing policies, processes, and controls to manage cloud resources

Cloud Computing MCQs with Solved Answers

What is the purpose of a cloud load balancer in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To manage virtual machines
Answer: c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers

What is the concept of “serverless databases” in cloud computing?
a. Running databases without using virtual machines
b. Storing databases on physical servers
c. Automatically scaling database resources up or down based on demand
d. Developing databases without having to manage the underlying infrastructure
Answer: a. Running databases without using virtual machines

What is the role of a cloud backup and disaster recovery service in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To automatically back up data in case of data loss or disasters
d. To manage virtual networks
Answer: c. To automatically back up data in case of data loss or disasters

What is the purpose of a cloud API gateway in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To manage APIs (Application Programming Interfaces) for cloud applications
Answer: d. To manage APIs (Application Programming Interfaces) for cloud applications

What is the concept of “cloud bursting” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications without using virtual machines
b. Storing data on physical servers
c. Automatically scaling resources up or down based on demand
d. Moving workloads from on-premises data centers to the cloud during peak usage periods
Answer: d. Moving workloads from on-premises data centers to the cloud during peak usage periods

Cloud Computing MCQs

What is the purpose of a cloud compliance and security service in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To ensure compliance with regulatory requirements and maintain security
d. To manage virtual machines
Answer: c. To ensure compliance with regulatory requirements and maintain security

What is the concept of “cloud native” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications in multiple geographical locations
b. Storing data redundantly across multiple servers
c. Developing applications specifically for cloud environments
d. Sharing resources among multiple users or organizations
Answer: c. Developing applications specifically for cloud environments

What is the purpose of a cloud object storage in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To store and retrieve unstructured data such as images, videos, and documents
Answer: d. To store and retrieve unstructured data such as images, videos, and documents

What is the role of a cloud identity and access management (IAM) service in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
d. To manage authentication, authorization, and permissions for cloud resources
Answer: d. To manage authentication, authorization, and permissions for cloud resources

What is the concept of “cloud orchestration” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications without using virtual machines
b. Storing data on physical servers
c. Automating the deployment, scaling, and management of cloud resources
d. Developing applications without having to manage the underlying infrastructure
Answer: c. Automating the deployment, scaling, and management of cloud resources

Cloud Computing MCQs Solved

What is the purpose of a cloud content delivery network (CDN) in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To distribute content across multiple servers to improve delivery performance
d. To manage virtual machines
Answer: c. To distribute content across multiple servers to improve delivery performance

What is the concept of “cloud governance” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications in multiple geographical locations
b. Storing data redundantly across multiple servers
c. Implementing policies and procedures to ensure compliant and efficient use of cloud resources
d. Sharing resources among multiple users or organizations
Answer: c. Implementing policies and procedures to ensure compliant and efficient use of cloud resources

What is the purpose of a cloud cost management service in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To optimize and monitor cloud resource usage to control costs
d. To manage virtual networks
Answer: c. To optimize and monitor cloud resource usage to control costs

What is the role of a cloud monitoring and logging service in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To monitor and track the performance and health of cloud resources
d. To manage APIs (Application Programming Interfaces) for cloud applications

Answer: c. To monitor and track the performance and health of cloud resources

What is the concept of “cloud elasticity” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications without using virtual machines
b. Storing data on physical servers
c. Automatically scaling resources up or down based on demand
d. Moving workloads from on-premises data centers to the cloud during peak usage periods
Answer: c. Automatically scaling resources up or down based on demand

Important Cloud Computing MCQs with Answers

What is the purpose of a cloud marketplace in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To provide a platform for buying and selling cloud-based services and applications
d. To store and retrieve unstructured data such as images, videos, and documents
Answer: c. To provide a platform for buying and selling cloud-based services and applications

What is the concept of “cloud interconnect” in cloud computing?
a. Running applications in multiple geographical locations
b. Storing data redundantly across multiple servers
c. Establishing private network connections between on-premises data centers and cloud providers
d. Sharing resources among multiple users or organizations
Answer: c. Establishing private network connections between on-premises data centers and cloud providers

What is the purpose of a cloud migration service in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To facilitate the transfer of applications and data from on-premises environments to the cloud
d. To manage authentication, authorization, and permissions for cloud resources
Answer: c. To facilitate the transfer of applications and data from on-premises environments to the cloud

What is the role of a cloud containerization service in cloud computing?
a. To provide internet connectivity
b. To store and manage data in the cloud
c. To encapsulate applications and their dependencies into portable containers
d. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
Answer: c. To encapsulate applications and their dependencies into portable containers

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Computer Shortcut Key Description

Computer Science and I.T Subjects
Shortcut Key Description
Ctrl + C Copy selected text or item
Ctrl + X Cut selected text or item
Ctrl + V Paste copied or cut text or item
Ctrl + Z Undo previous action
Ctrl + Y Redo previous action
Ctrl + A Select all items or text
Ctrl + S Save current document or file
Ctrl + P Print current document or file
Ctrl + F Open “Find” dialog box to search for text or items
Ctrl + N Open a new document or window
Ctrl + O Open an existing document or file
Ctrl + W Close current document or window
Ctrl + F4 Close current tab or window in a web browser
Ctrl + Tab Switch between open tabs or windows in a web browser or application
Ctrl + Shift + T Reopen last closed tab in a web browser
Ctrl + Shift + N Create a new folder
Ctrl + Shift + S Save current document or file with a different name
Ctrl + Alt + Del Open Task Manager to manage processes and applications
Alt + Tab Switch between open applications or windows
Alt + F4 Close current application or window
F5 Refresh or reload current page or document
F11 Toggle full-screen mode in a web browser or application
Windows Key + D Show or hide desktop
Windows Key + E Open File Explorer
Windows Key + L Lock computer or switch user
Windows Key + R Open Run dialog box
Windows Key + X Open Quick Link menu in Windows 10
Ctrl + B Bold selected text
Ctrl + I Italicize selected text
Ctrl + U Underline selected text
Ctrl + P Open print dialog box
Ctrl + T Open a new tab in a web browser
Ctrl + F5 Clear cache and refresh current page in a web browser
Ctrl + Shift + Esc Open Task Manager directly in Windows
Ctrl + Esc Open Start menu in Windows
Alt + F Open File menu in an application
Alt + E Open Edit menu in an application
Alt + V Open View menu in an application
Alt + S Open Save menu in an application
Alt + O Open Options menu in an application
Alt + H Open Help menu in an application
Alt + Enter Open properties or information of a selected item
Alt + Space Open window’s system menu (e.g., minimize, maximize, close)
Alt + Backspace Go back to previous page in a web browser
Alt + Home Go to homepage in a web browser
F1 Open help or context-sensitive information
F2 Rename selected item
F3 Open search box in a file explorer or web browser
F4 Display address bar drop-down list in a web browser
F6 Switch focus between different areas of an application or window
Tab Move to the next field or element in a form or dialog box
Shift + Tab Move to the previous field or element in a form or dialog box
Esc Cancel or close current action or dialog box
Ctrl + Home Go to the beginning of a document or webpage
Ctrl + End Go to the end of a document or webpage
Ctrl + Page Up Scroll up one page at a time
Ctrl + Page Down Scroll down one page at a time
Ctrl + + Zoom in or increase text size
Ctrl + – Zoom out or decrease text size
Ctrl + 0 Reset zoom or return to default text size
Ctrl + Shift + Esc Open Task Manager directly in Windows
Ctrl + Shift + Arrow Keys Select text or items in a document or webpage
Ctrl + Drag and Drop Copy or move selected item to a different location
Ctrl + Shift + D Insert the current date in a document
Ctrl + Shift + T Insert the current time in a document
Ctrl + Shift + F Change the font in a document
Ctrl + Shift + > Increase font size in a document
Ctrl + Shift + < Decrease font size in a document
Ctrl + Shift + L Apply a bulleted or numbered list in a document
Ctrl + Shift + C Copy formatting of selected text or item
Ctrl + Shift + V Paste formatting onto selected text or item
Ctrl + Shift + N Create a new folder
Ctrl + Shift + S Save current document or file with a different name
Windows Key + D Show or hide desktop
Windows Key + E Open File Explorer
Windows Key + L Lock computer or switch user
Windows Key + R Open Run dialog box
Windows Key + X Open Quick Link menu in Windows

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